61. Identify the human developmental stage shown below as well as the related right place of its occurrence in a normal pregnant woman, and select the right option for the two together. [NEET 2012M] Developmental stage Site of occurrence
(a) Late morula Middle part of fallopian tube
(b) Blastula End part of fallopian tube
(c) Blastocyst Uterine wall
(d) 8 celled morula Starting point of fallopian tube
Ans: (c) Blastocyst is a thin-walled hollow structure in early embryonic development that contains a cluster of cells called the inner cell mass from which the embryo arises. The outer layer of cells gives rise to the placenta and other supporting tissues needed for fetal development within the uterus while the inner cell mass cells give rise to the tissues of the body. The blastocyst reaches the womb (uterus) around day 5, and implants into the uterine wall on about day 6.
62. In vitro fertilisation is a technique that involves transfer of which one of the following into the fallopian tube? [NEET 2010]
(a) Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage
(b) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage
(c) Embryo of 32 cell stage
(d) Zygote only
Ans: (a) In vitro fertilization is a process where fertilization of egg occurs outside the mother’s womb. This method is used as a major treatment for infertility. This method involves the removal of eggs from the female ovaries. This egg is then allowed to fertilize with sperm in a fluid medium in a test tube. The zygote is allowed to develop for a week. Either zygote or early embryo up to 8 blastomeres is then transferred into the fallopian tube to complete its further development. If the embryo is with more than 8 blastomeres, it is transferred into uterus for successful pregnancy. A baby conceived by fertilization that occurs outside mother body is called test tube baby.
63. The signals for parturition originate from
(a) placenta only [NEET 2010]
(b) placenta as well as fully developed foetus
(c) oxytocin released from maternal pituitary
(d) fully developed foetus only
Ans: (b) Parturition is the process of delivery of the foetus. The signals for parturition originate from the fully developed foetus and placenta that induce uterine contraction called foetal ejection reflex. This triggers the release of oxytocin hormone from pituitary. This in turn leads to expulsion of the baby out of uterus.
64. The first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair on its head are usually observed during which month of pregnancy? [NEET 2010]
(a) Fourth month (b) Fifth month
(c) Sixth month (d) Third month
Ans: (b) In human beings, after one month of pregnancy, the embryo’s heart is formed. By end of second month pregnancy, the foetus develops limbs and digits. By end of 12 weeks, major organ systems are formed. After fifth month, the first movement of foetus and appearance of hair on its head are observed. By the end of 24 weeks, the body is covered with hairs, eye lids separate and eyelashes are formed.
65. Which one of the following statements about morula in humans is correct? [NEET 2010]
(a) It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an uncleaved zygote but much more DNA
(b) It has far less cytoplasm as well as less DNA than in an uncleaved zygote
(c) It has more or less equal quantity of cytoplasm and DNA as in uncleaved zygote
(d) It has more cytoplasm and more DNA than an uncleaved zygote
Ans: (a) Morula is a solid ball contained within the zone pellucida. It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an uncleaved zygote but much more DNA.
66. Foetal ejection reflex in human female is induced by [NEET 2009]
(a) release oxytocin from pituitary
(b) fully developed foetus and placenta
(c) differentiation of mammary glands
(d) pressure exerted by amniotic fluid
Ans: (b) Foetal ejection reflex in human female is induced by fully developed foetus and placenta. When a woman is in a lithotomy or semi-sitting position, the Foetal Ejection Reflex is impaired and the increased pain caused by the sacrum’s inability to move as the baby descends can be intolerable.
67. A change in the amount of yolk and its distribution in the egg will affect [NEET 2009]
(a) pattern of cleavage
(b) number of blastomeres produced
(c) fertilization
(d) formation of zygote
Ans: (a) A change in the amount of yolk and its distribution in the egg will affect pattern of cleavage. The pattern of cleavage is influenced by the amount of yolk in the egg. In eggs with less yolk, cleavages are equal, and the resulting blastomeres are of similar size. If the yolk is localized, such as in frog eggs, then cleavages are unequal, the cells derived from the yolky region (the vegetal pole) are larger than those derived from the region without yolk (the animal pole).
68. Which extra-embryonic membrane in humans prevents desiccation of the embryo inside the uterus? [NEET 2008]
(a) Chorion (b) Allantois
(c) Yolk sac (d) Amnion
Ans: (d) Amnion is an extraembryonic membrane in human prevents desiccation of the embryo inside the uterus. Amnion is a membrane that encloses the embryo of reptiles, birds and mammals within the amniotic cavity. This cavity is filled with amniotic fluid, in which the embryo is protected from dessication and external pressure.
69. During embryonic development, the establishment of polarity along anterior/ posterior, dorsal/ventral or medial/lateral axis is called [NEET 2003]
(a) pattern formation
(b) organizer phenomena
(c) axis formation
(d) anamorphosis
Ans: (b) An organizer is a signal aligning center that directs the development of embryo or part of embryo, e.g. in amphibians, it is dorsal tip of blastophore.
70. Cleavage in mammalian egg is [NEET 2000]
(a) superficial meroblastic
(b) discoidal meroblastic
(c) unequal holoblastic
(d) equal holoblastic
Ans: (c) Cleavage in the human zygote is holoblastic i.e. it divides the zygote and the blastomeres completely into daughter cells. But it is unequal as the blastomeres differ in size.
71. Extra-embryonic membranes of the mammalian embryo are derived from [NEET 1994]
(a) inner cell mass (b) trophoblast
(c) formative cells (d) follicle cells
Ans: (b) Four extra-embryonic membranes are present in mammals which originally arise from trophoblast viz. amnion, chorion, allantois and yolk sac. The trophoblast is the outermost layer of cells in morula.
72. Gonads develop from embryonic [NEET 1990]
(a) ectoderm
(b) endoderm
(c) mesoderm
(d) both mesoderm and endoderm
Ans: (c) Ectoderm produces – Liver, Epidermis, glands, hair, nervous system etc. Endoderm produces – Pancreas, lining of urinary bladder etc. Mesoderm produces – Dermis, most muscles, Kidneys, Gonads etc. Ω
26. Reproductive Health
1. The function of copper ions in copper releasing IUD’s is : [NEET 2017]
(a) They inhibit gametogenesis
(b) They make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(c) They inhibit ovulation
(d) They suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms
Ans: (d) Cu2+ interfere in the sperm movement, which suppress the sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms.
2. In context of Amniocentesis, which of the following statement is incorrect ? [NEET 2016]
(a) It is usually done when a woman is between 14-16 weeks pregnant.
(b) It is used for prenatal sex determination
(c) It can be used for detection of Down syndrome
(d) It can be used for detection of Cleft palate
Ans: (d) Amniocentesis (also referred to as amniotic fluid test or AFT) is a medical procedure used in prenatal diagnosis of chromosomal abnormalities and fetal infections, and also used for sex determination in which a small amount of amniotic fluid, which contains fetal tissues, is sampled from the amniotic sac. Cleft palate is a developmental abnormality which can only be detected by sonography.
3. Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive ? [NEET 2016]
(a) Barrier methods prevent fertilization
(b) Intra uterine Increase phagocytosis devices of sperms, suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity of sperms
(c) Hormonal Prevent/retard entry contraceptives of sperms, prevent ovulation and fertilization
(d) Vasectomy Prevents spermatogenesis
Ans: (d) Vasectomy is a surgical procedure for male sterilization or permanent contraception. During the procedure, the male vas deferens are severed and then tied or sealed in a manner so as to prevent sperm from entering into the seminal stream (ejaculate) and thereby prevent fertilization.
4. Hysteresctomy is surgical removal of :
(a) Prostate gland [NEET 2015 RS]
(b) Vas-deference
(c) Mammary glands
(d) Uterus
Ans: (d) A hysterectomy is a surgery in which woman’s uterus is removed. It is adopted for the treatment of uterine fibroids and cancer of uterine zone.
5. Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in which: [NEET 2014]
(a) small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up.
(b) ovaries are removed surgically.
(c) small part of vas deferens is removed or tied up.
(d) uterus is removed surgically.
Ans: (a) Tubectomy also referred to as tubal sterilization is a surgical procedure done on women as a permanent method of contraception. In this method fallopian tubes are blocked so that the ova or eggs are prevented from travelling to the uterus from the ovary. This prevents any future pregnancies to occur after the surgical procedure. Cervix Vagina Ovary Fallopian tubes Uterus
6. Which of the following is a hormone releasing Intra Uterine Device (IUD)? [NEET 2014]
(a) Multiload 375 (b) LNG – 20
(c) Cervical cap (d) Vault
Ans: (b) An intrauterine device (IUD) is a small contraceptive device, often ‘T’-shaped, often containing either copper or levonorgestrel, which is inserted into the uterus. They are one form of long-acting reversible contraception which is the most effective types of reversible birth control. The LNG-20 is so-called because it releases 20 micrograms of levonorgestrel per 24 hours, compared with 30 micrograms of levonorgestrel in some mini-Pills.
7. Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis?
(a) Sex of the foetus [NEET NEET 2013]
(b) Down syndrome
(c) Jaundice
(d) Klinefelter syndrome
Ans: (c) Jaundice cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis. It is a foetal sex determination test based on chromosomal pattern in the amniotic fluid surrounding the developing embryo. It is now legally ban in India.
8. One of the legal methods of birth control is : [NEET NEET 2013]
(a) by abstaining from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle
(b) by having coitus at the time of day break
(c) by a premature ejaculation during coitus
(d) abortion by taking an appropriate medicine
Ans: (d) Medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) or induced abortion become legal in India from 1971 with some strict conditions to avoid its misuse. Such restrictions are important to check indiscriminate and illegal female foeticides which are reported to be high in India. All the other options are of natural methods of contraception.
9. One of the following is not a method of contraception – which one? [NEET NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) Tubectomy
(b) Condoms
(c) Pills of a combination of oxytocin and vasopressin
(d) Lippes loop
Ans: (c) Oxytocin is birth hormone and acts on the smooth muscles of our body and stimulates their contraction. Vasopressin acts mainly at the kidney and stimulates resorption of water and electrolytes and reduces loss of water through urine. Hence, it is also called as anti-diuretic hormone (ADH).
10. What is the figure given below showing in particular ? [NEET 2012]
(a) Ovarian cancer (b) Uterine cancer
(c) Tubectomy (d) Vasectomy
Ans: (c) The figure shows the tubectomy. This is a surgical method to prevent pregnancy in women. In tubectomy small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied through a small cut in the abdomen or through vagina. It is very effective method but reversibility is very poor.
11. Which one of the following is the most widely accepted method of contraception in India, as at present ? [NEET 2011]
(a) Cervical caps
(b) Tubectomy
(c) Diaphragms
(d) IUDs. (Intra uterine devices)
Ans: (d) Intra uterine device (IUD) is a method of contraception in India. The IUD is inserted in the woman’s uterus through the cervix.
12. Cu ions released from copper – releasing Intra Uterine Devices (IUDs): [NEET 2010]
(a) make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(b) increase phagocytosis of sperms
(c) suppress sperm motility
(d) prevent ovulation
Ans: (c) Cu ions released by copper releasing intra uterine devices suppresses sperm motility. Intra-uterine devices are inserted by doctors in the uterus through vagina. They are available as the non-medicated IUDs, copper releasing IUDs and hormonereleasing IUDs.
13. Given below are four methods (A-D) and their modes of action (a-d) in achieving contraception. Select their correct matching from the four options that follow: [NEET 2008] Method Mode of Action
A. The pill (a) Prevents sperms reaching cervix
B. Condom (b) Prevents implantation
C. Vasectomy (c) Prevents ovulation
D. Copper T (d) Semen contains no sperms Matching:
(a) A-(c), B-(a), C-(d), D-(b)
(b) A-(d), B-(a), C-(b), D-(c)
(c) A-(c), B-(d), C-(a), D-(b)
(d) A-(b), B-(c), C-(a), D-(d)
Ans: (a) A. The pill — Prevents ovulation B. Condom — Prevents sperm reaching cervix C. Vasectomy — Semen contains no sperms D. Copper-T — Prevent implantation.
14. Copper-T is a device that prevents [NEET 2000]
(a) implantation of blastocyst
(b) ovulation
(c) fertilization
(d) egg maturation
Ans: (a) Copper ‘T’ is an intrauterine device which prevents the fertilized egg becoming implanted in the wall of the womb.
15. In case of a couple where the male is having a very low sperm count, which technique will be suitable for fertilisation ? [NEET 2017]
(a) Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer
(b) Artificial Insemination
(c) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
(d) Intrauterine transfer
Ans: (b) Infertility cases due to inability of the male partner to inseminate the female or due to very low sperm count in the ejaculates, could be corrected by using artificial insemination (AI) technique. In this procedure semen is injected directly into the vagina or uterus.
16. Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as: [NEET 2015 RS]
(a) Implantation of embryo at site other than uterus.
(b) Implantation of defective embryo in the uterus
(c) Pregnancies terminated due to hormonal imbalance.
(d) Pregnancies with genetic abnormality.
Ans: (a) In ectopic pregnancies, the implantation of embryo does not occur in uterus but at other site.
17. A childless couple can be assisted to have a child through a technique called GIFT. The full form of this technique is : [NEET 2015 RS]
(a) Gamete intra fallopian transfer
(b) Gamete internal fertillization and transfer
(c) Germ cell internal fallopian transfer
(d) Gemete inseminated fallopian transfer
Ans: (b) IVF (In vitro Fertilization) is the process of fertilization by manually combining an egg and sperm in a laboratory dish. The process involves monitoring and stimulating a woman’s ovulatory process, removing ovum or ova (egg or eggs) from the woman’s ovaries and letting sperm fertilise them in a fluid medium in a laboratory. The fertilised egg (zygote) is cultured for 2-6 days in a growth medium and is then transferred to the mother’s uterus with the intention of establishing a successful pregnancy.
18. Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves transfer of: [NEET 2014]
(a) Ovum into the fallopian tube.
(b) Zygote into the fallopian tube.
(c) Zygote into the uterus.
(d) Embryo with 16 blastomeres into the fallopian tube.
Ans: (a) GIFT (Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer) is a technique helping to have a child.
19. Artificial insemination mean: [NEET NEET 2013]
(a) Transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube containing ova
(b) Artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor into the vagina
(c) Introduction of sperms of a healthy donor directly into the ovary
(d) Transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test tube containing ova
Ans: (b) In Artificial Insemination (AI) technique, the semen collected either from the husband or a healthy donor is artificially introduced either into the vagina or into the uterus (IUI – intrauterine insemination) of the female.
20. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STD)? [NEET NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) The chances of a 5 year boy contacting a STD are very little
(b) A person may contact syphilis by sharing milk with one already suffering from the disease
(c) Haemophilia is one of the STD
(d) Genital herpes and sickle-cell anaemia are both STD
Ans: (a) STDs are more common in 15-24 years age group. Gonorrhoea, syphilis, genital herpes, chlamydiasis, genital warts, trichomoniasis, hepatitis-B and AIDS are some of the common STDs. Haemophilia is sex-linked recessive disease, which show its transmission from unaffected carrier female to some of male progeny. Sickle cell anaemia is an autoimmune linked recessive trait in which both the partners are carrier for the gene.