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GK Chapterwise – CDS Previous Year Papers

Table of Contents

321. Which one of the following statements about emergency provisions under the Constitution of India is not correct?

(a)The powers of the Union Executive extend to giving directions to the States concerning the exercise of their powers.
(b) The Union Executive can issue a provision relating to reduction of salaries of employees of the State Governments.
(c) Governors have no emergency powers like the President of India.
(d) If the Governor of a State is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of the State is threatened, he may declare financial emergency in the State.
Ans: (d)

CDS (I) 2015

322. Which one of the following statements about the All India Services is correct?

(a)The All India Services may be created by an Act of the Parliament.
(b) The endorsement of the Rajya Sabha is not essential for the creation of the All India Services.
(c) The rules of recruitment to the All India Services are determined by the UPSC.
(d) The conditions of service to the All India Services may be altered by the UPSC.
Ans: (a)

CDS (II) 2011

323. Who among the following was the Chief Justice of India when Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was introduced in the Indian Judicial System?

(a)M. Hidayatullah
(b) A. S. Anand
(c) A. M. Ahmadi
(d) P. N. Bhagwati
Ans: (d)
CDS Exam (II) 2013

324. The National Commission for Women was created by

(a)an amendment in the Constitution of India
(b) a decision of the Union Cabinet
(c) an Act passed by the Parliament
(d) an order of the President of India
Ans: (c)

CDS (II) 2017

325. Which of the following statements about attorney General of India is/are not correct?
1. He is the first Law Officer of the Government of India.
2. He is entitled to the privileges of a Member of the Parliament.
3. He is a whole-time counsel for the Government.
4. He must have the same qualifications as are required to be a judge of the Supreme Court.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a)1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 only
Ans: (c)

CDS (I) 2015

326. Which one of the following Amendments to the Constitution of India has prescribed that the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of total number of members of the House of the People or Legislative Assembly in the States?

(a)91st Amendment
(b) 87th Amendment
(c) 97th Amendment
(d) 90th Amendment
Ans: (a)

CDS (II) 2019

327. According to the Election Commission of India, in order to be recognized as a ‘National Party’, a political party must be treated as a recognized political party in how many States?

(a)At least two States
(b) At least three States
(c) At least four States
(d) At least five States
Ans: (c)
CDS Exam (II) 2012

328. A person is disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a Member of either House of the Parliament if the person
1. holds any office or profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State other than an office declared by the Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder
2. is an undischarged insolvent
3. Is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India
4. Is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent Court Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a)1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Ans: (b)

CDS (II) 2007

329. Which of the following are the functions of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)?
1. Inquiry at its own initiative on the violation of human rights.
2. Inquiry on a petition presented to it by a victim.
3. Visit to jails to study the condition of the inmates.
4. Undertaking and promoting research in the field of human rights.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a)1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)

CDS (I) 2009

330. Which one of the following is not an International Human Rights Treaty?

(a)International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
(b) Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women
(c) Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities
(d) Declaration on the Right to Development
Ans: (d)

CDS (II) 2018

331. Which of the following statements about the Ordinancemaking power of the Governor is/are correct?
1. It is a discretionary power.
2. The Governor himself is not competent to withdraw the Ordinance at any time.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a)1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
CDS Exam (II) 2016

332. Which one among the following States of India has the largest number of seats in its Legislative Assembly?

(a)West Bengal
(b) Bihar
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans: (a)

CDS (II) 2008

333. Which one of the following statements in respect of the States of India is not correct?

(a)States in India cannot have their own constitutions.
(b) The State of Jammu and Kashmir has its own constitution.
(c) States in India do not have the right to secede from the Union of India.
(d) The maximum number of members in the Council of Ministers of Delhi can be 15 percent of the total
Ans: (d)

CDS (I) 2010

334. Under which one of the following Amendment Acts was Sikkim admitted into the Union of India?

(b) 36th
(c) 37th
(d) 38th
Ans: (b)
CDS Exam (I) 2015

335. In the context of elections in India, which one of the following is the correct full form of VVPAT?

(a)Voter Verifiable Poll Audit Trail
(b) Voter Verifying Paper Audit Trail
(c) Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail
(d) Voter Verifiable Paper Account Trial
Ans: (c)

CDS (I) 2011

Chapter 3 Geography of India & World

1. Among the following forest types in India, which one occupies the largest area?
(a)Tropical wet evergreen forest
(b) Tropical moist deciduous forest
(c) Sub-tropical dry evergreen forest
(d) Montane wet temperate forest
Ans: (b)

CDS (I) 2019

2. The reservoir GB Pant Sagar is located on which river?

(b) Ghaghara
(c) Kosi
(d) Rihand
Ans: (d)

CDS (I) 2012

3. The National Forestry Action Plan aims to bring 33% of land area in India under tree cover by which year?

(b) 2012
(c) 2016
(d) 2020
Ans: (b)
CDS Exam (I) 2007

4. What is the other name for the equatorial rain farests?

(b) Campos
(c) Gran Chaco
(d) Selvas
Ans: (d)
CDS Exam (I) 2009

5. Which of the following straits is not in Asia?

(a)Malacca Strait
(b) Bass Strait
(c) Formosa Strait
(d) Molucca Strait
Ans: (b)

CDS (I) 2018

6. Match the following Lis t I Lis t II
(Centre of Economic Activity) (Country)
A. Edmonton 1. A ustralia
B. Kimberley 2. South A frica
3. Cardiff 3. United Kingdom
4. Cairns 4. Canada Codes A B C D

(a)1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 4 2 3 1
Ans: (d)

CDS (II) 2016

7. Which one of the following cities is located on the banks of the River St Lawrence?

(b) Detroit
(c) Montreal
(d) Vancouver
Ans: (c)
CDS Exam (II) 2008

8. Which one of the following national parks is located near Chamoli?

(a)Dudhwa National Park
(b) Great Himalayan Park
(c) Jim Corbett National Park
(d) Nanda Devi National Park
Ans: (d)

CDS (II) 2010

9. Which one of the following is correct? The Palghat Gap serves inland communications from

(a)Madurai to Thiruvananthapuram
(b) Chennai to Kochi
(c) Pune to Mumbai
(d) Bangaluru to Mangalore
Ans: (a)

CDS (I) 2015

10. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Headquarters of Railways Zone City
A. South-Western Hubli
B. North-Western Jaipur
C. Western Mumbai
D. Central Jabalpur
Ans: (d)

CDS (II) 2011

11. The Great Barrier Reef is located in which country?

(b) Australia
(c) USA
(d) Indonesia
Ans: (b)
CDS Exam (II) 2013

12. River Luni originates near Pushkar and drains into which one of the following?

(a)Rann of Kachchh
(b) Arbian Sea
(c) Gulf of Cambay
(d) Lake Sambhar
Ans: (a)

CDS (II) 2017

13. Which of the following seas/gulfs are connected by the Suez Canal?

(a)The Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea
(b) Gulf of Oman and the Red Sea
(c) The Mediterranean Sea and the Gulf of Oman
(d) Persian Gulf and the Arabian Sea
Ans: (a)

CDS (I) 2015

14. In the Cauvery River water dispute, which one of the following groups of states are concerned?

(a)Kerala and Karnataka only
(b) Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra
(c) Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Union Terrtory of Puducherry
(d) Kerala, Goa, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
Ans: (c)

CDS (II) 2019

15. Consider the following statements
1. Dakshin Gangotri is India’s second scientific manned station in Antarctica after Maitri.
2. The National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Research is situated at Goa.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
CDS Exam (II) 2012

16. Which country among the following has the largest cultivated area of cotton in the world?

(b) India
(c) Pakistan
(d) USA
Ans: (d)

CDS (II) 2007

17. What is ‘Operation Kolleru’ that was recently in the news?

(a)A massive river linkage project
(b) A project to improve a wetland
(c) A project to supply drinking water to a mega city
(d) A rural drinking water supply scheme of a southern state
Ans: (b)

CDS (I) 2009

18. Which one of the following states has built the famous Gandhi Sagar across the Chambal River?

(b) Maharashtra
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Ans: (d)
CDS Exam (I) 2018

19. Which one of the following countries is not situated in the region between the Caspian Sea and the Black Sea?

(b) Azerbaijan
(c) Georgia
(d) Ukraine
Ans: (d)
CDS Exam (II) 2016

20. Match the following List l
(Ethnic Community) List II
A. Apatani 1. Arunachal Pradesh
B. Bhutia 2. Madhya Pradesh
C. Gond 3. Manipu
D. Meiti 4 Sikkim Codes A B C D

(a)1 2 4 3
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 3 4 2 1
Ans: (b)

CDS (II) 2008

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