Chapter 1 Indian History 21. In which of the following years was the first Railway line between Bombay and Thane laid? 23. Who among the following was the founder of the Muslim League? 26. Who among the following has started the Public Works Department in India in AD 1848? 27. Who among the following was thrice elected President of the Indian National Congress? 30. What is the correct sequence of the following events?
1. Bardoli Satyagraha
2. Rajkot Satyagraha
3. Champaran Satyagraha
4. Nagpur Satyagraha Codes: 34. What is the correct sequence of the following events?
1. Rowlatt Act
2. Gandhi-lrwin Pact
3. Morley-Minto Reforms
4. Illbert Bill Select the correct answer using the codes given below 38. Who among the following was not a member of the Constituent Assembly? 41. Consider the following statements relating to Raja Rammohan Roy
1. He knew that the spread of Western education was necessary to develop a national and scientific attitude in the Indian society.
2. He played a pioneering role in the religious and social reform movements of 19th century, Bengal.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 42. Match the following List I List II
(Person) (Satyagraha)
A. Raj Kumar Shukla 1. Kheda Satyagraha
B. Ambalal Sarabhai 2. Ahmedabad Mill Strike
C. Indulal Yagnik 3. Bardoli Satyagraha
D. Vallabhbhai Patel 4. Champaran Satyagraha Codes:
A B C D A B C D 45. ‘A Forgotten Empire’, written by the renowned historian Robert Sewell is about which one of the following empires? 49. Which of the following statements on Gandhian movements is not correct? 53. Assertion (A) First War of independence broke out in India in 1857, soon after the departure of Lord Dalhousie from India.
Reason (R) Lord Dalhousie’s annexationist policy had caused great discontent. Codes: 56. After the death of Raja Rammohan Roy, the Brahmo Samaj split into two sections; the Brahmo Samaj of India and the Adi Brahmo Samaj. Who were the leaders of the two sections, respectively? 57. Which one of the following statements regarding Harappan civilisation is correct? 60. Which among the following was not one of the provisions of the ‘Communal Award’? 61. Who drafted the Constitution of Muslim League, ‘The Green Book’? 64. Consider the following statements relating to the famous Muzaffarpur murders (1908)
1. The bomb, which was hurled at their carriage of Mrs Pringle and her daughter was actually intended for Mr Kingsford, the District Judge of Muzaffarpur.
2. The revolutionaries wanted to kill Mr Kingsford, because he had inflicted severe punishments on Swadeshi activists.
3. Khudiram and Prafulla Chaki had to pay the penalty for their action by death.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 68. Consider the following statements and identify the person referred to therein with the help of the codes given below During his stay in England, he endeavoured to educate the British people about their responsibilities as rulers of India.
He delivered speeches and published articles to support his opposition to the unjust and oppressive regime of the British Raj. In 1867, he helped to establish the East India Association of which he became the Honorary Secretary. 71. Which among the following are the five principles of peaceful co-existence of Panchsheel as outlined by Jawaharlal Nehru? 72. Consider the following paragraph He was seriously injured in police lathi charge in Lahore during demonstrations against Simon Commission, for which he subsequently died in November, 1928. Later on, the British officer who was responsible for the lathi charge on him, was shot dead by Bhagat Singh and Rajguru.
The revolutionary referred to in the above paragraph is 75. Which of the following was/were the main feature (s) of the Government of India Act, 1919?
1. Introduction of separate electorates for Muslims.
2. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces.
3. Expansion and reconstitution of central and provincial legislatures.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 79. Which one among the following sums up Marx’s view about history? 81. Which one of the following was not a result of British colonial rule in India? 83. Consider the following statements aboul Vijayanagara empire
1. Vijayanagara was noted for its markets dealing in spices, textiles and precious stones.
2. Krishnadeva Raya’s rule was characterised by the strain within the imperial structure,
3. The Amara-Nayakas were military commanders who were given territories to govern by the Royas.
Which ofthe statements given above is/are correct? 86. Consider the following statements about Dr Ram Manohar Lohia
1. He believed the Satyagraha without constructive work is like a sentence without a verb.
2. He wrote his PhD thesis paper on the topic of Salt Satyagraha, focusing on Mahatma Gandhi’s socioeconomic theory.
3. He recognised that caste, more than class, was the huge stumbling block to India’s progress.
Which of the statements give above is/are correct? 87. Which of the following statements above Ryotwari settlement is/are correct?
1. It recognised the cultivators as the owner of land.
2. It was a temporary settlement.
3. It was introduced later than the permanent settlement.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 90. Consider the following events in the history of British India
1. Santhal Rebellion
2. Indigo Revolt
3. Sanyasi and Fakir Rebellion
4. Birsa Munda Rebellion Which one of the following is a correct chronological sequence of the above events starting with the earliest? 94. To which among the following the residuary powers were conferred by the federation established by the act of 1935? 98. Which one of the following statements about the teachings of Kabir is not correct? 101. Industrial Revolution in Europe mainly emerged due to
1. locating the production process in the countryside.
2. declining of the guilds because of non-farming production coming under a single roof (the factory).
3. growing role of merchant capitalists in the production process. Select the correct answer using the codes given below 102. Consider the following passage and identify the three tribal principalities referred to there, in using the codes given below In the early history of the far South in India, three tribal principalities are mentioned in Ashokan inscriptions of the 3rd century BC and in Kharavela inscription of the 1st century BC. 105. Statement I: In North-Western India, the Civil Disobedience Movement took a mass character under the leadership of Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan.
Statement II: The Nehru Report (1928) had argued that the ‘next immediate step’ for India must be dominion status. 109. Which of the following statements regarding the American Revolution is/are correct?
1. The American Revolution was a conflict between British settlers and native Americans.
2. The Americans refused to pay taxes imposed by the British Parliament in which the Americans had no representation.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 113. Which one among the following was a reason for which the French could not succeed in India in the 18th century? 116. The Iron Pillar near Qutub Minar draws attention of scientists due to its 117. The first effort at drafting a Dominion Status Constitution for India was made in response to the 120. Which one among the following was not a possible reason for the success of Nadir Shah’s military compaign in Delhi? 121. Gandhiji led the Indian Nationalist Movement from the front and his leadership was motivated by a wider philosophy, he nurtured throughout the course of the movement. Which one among the following was a continuous movement based on this philosophy and not a specific movement? 124. Which one among the following is not a characteristic of Rig-Vedic Aryans? 128. Which one among the following statements appropriately defines the term ‘Drain Theory’ as propounded by Dadabhai Naoroji in his work ‘Poverty and Un–British Rule in India’? 131. Match the following List I List II
(Battle) (Treaty)
A. The Third Carnatic 1. Treaty of Salbai War
B. The Third Mysore 2. Treaty of Lahore War
C. The First Maratha War 3. Treaty of Paris
D. The First Anglo 4. Treaty of Srirangapatam Sikh War Codes:
A B C D A B C D 132. The Name of Ram Prasad Bismil is associated with 135. The Viceregal Lodge at Shimla is a well-known ancient monument. Which of the following statements about the monument are correct?
1. The Lodge was built by 17th Viceroy, Earl Dufferin.
2. The present shape of the building was given by Earl of Marquis of Lansdowne.
3. It is famous for holding three meetings before Independence of India including the Cabinet Mission.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 139. Ashokan inscriptions of Mansehra and Shahbazgadhi are written in 141. Who among the following Governor Generals formed the Triple Alliance against Tipu Sultan? 143. Who among the following Chinese travellers visited the Kingdoms of Harsrhavardhana and Kumar Bhaskar Varma? 146. The suppression of Indian language newspapers under the Vernacular Press Act of 1878 was caused by the criticism of 147. The site of Harappa is located on the bank of river 150. Which one among the following statements is correct? 154. Consider the following statements about the European travellers to India
1. Sir Thomas Roe, the Representative of the East India Company, was granted the permission by Jahangir to open a factory at Surat.
2. Captain Hawkins was driven out from Agra by the Mughals at the instigation of Portuguese.
3. Father Monserrate travelled with Akbar on his journey to Kashmir.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 158. Which one among the following was the immediate cause of attack by Nawab Siraj-ud-Daula on Calcutta in 1756? 161. Which among the following statements regarding the Gupta Dynasty is/are correct?
1. The Kumaramatyas were the most important of the and they were appointed directly by the king in the home provinces.
2. The village headmen lost importance and of the transactions began to be effected without their consent.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 162. Consider the following statements about Sufism
1. The Sufism were critical of the dogmatic definitions and scholastic methods of interpreting the Quran and Sunna (traditions of the prophet) adopted by the theologianc.
2. The Sufis sought an interpretation of the Quran on the basis of their personal experience.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 165. Which one among the following books was authored by a lady of the Mughal Royal House? 169. The first Indian ruler to be shown in images as wearing a dress akin to trousers is 173. Which chemical was an important symbol in our struggle for freedom? 176. What was Ziyarat in the language of the Sufis? 177. Which of the following was/were not related to Buddha’s life?
1. Kanthaka 2. Alara Kalama
3. Channa 4. Goshala Maskariputra Select the correct answer using the codes given below 180. Statement I: Lomash Rishi and Sudama caves in the Barabar hills, modelled on wooden architectural prototypes are examples of the earliest cave architecture in India.
Statement II: Barabar hills caves were dedicated by Chandragupta Maurya to Ajivika monks. 181. The fortification of Calcutta by the British in 1756 was regarded by the Nawab of Bengal, Siraj-ud-Daulah, as 184. Several socio-political organisations were formed in the 19th and 20th centuries in India, Anjuman-e-Khawatin-e-Islam founded in the year 1914 was 188. Which one among the following thinkers argued that Maratha rule in general and Shivaji in particular represented early nationalist cons-ciousness in India? 191. Statement I: Kali age reflects the presence of deep social crisis characterised by varnasankara i. e., intermixture of varnas or social orders.
Statement II: The Vaisyas and Sudras (peasants, artisans and labourers) either refused to perform producing functions or pay taxes or supply necessary labour for economic production resulting in weakening of Brahminical social order and social tension. 192. Rajtarangini, authored by Kalhan, describes the history of 195. The Mansabdari system of the Mughals was a complex system. Its efficient functioning depended upon
1. the practice of offering the title of ‘Mansabdar’ to military personnel only.
2. proper functioning of the dagh (branding) system.
3. proper functioning of the jagirdari system.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 199. Statement I: The Russian Revolution of 1917 inspired the Indian Working Class Movement.
Statement II: The Non-Cooperation Movement (1921-22) saw the involvement of the Indian Working Class. 201. Which one among the following events was not associated with French Revolution? 203. Who among the following first used the word ‘Swarajya’ in its political sense and accepted Hindi as the national language of India? 206. The University of Nalanda was set-up by which Gupta ruler? 207. Consider the following statements about Sher Shah’s administration
1. He divided his empire into Sarkars, which were further subdivided into Parganas.
2. The Sarkars and the Parganas were directly administered by Sher Shah without the help of any other officials.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 210. Which one among the following events was associated with American War of Independence? 214. Consider the following statements regarding Indian Feudalism in the early medieval period
1. The revenue assignments were called Bhoga.
2. The hereditary chiefs neither collected revenues nor assumed administrative powers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 218. Consider the following statements about Syed Ahmed Khan, the founder of Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College, Aligarh
1. He was a staunch supporter of Indian National Congress.
2. Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College was set-up with the objective of promoting learning of Islamic education among the Muslims.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 221. Consider the following statements concerning the initial phase of the Industrial Revolution in England.
1. England was fortunate in that coal and iron ore were plentifully available to be used in industry.
2. Until the 18th century, there was a scarcity of usable iron.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 222. Match the following List I List II
(Temple) (Town)
A. Kailasanathar 1. Bhuvneshwar
B. Lingaraj 2. Khajuraho
C. Kandariya Mahadey 3. Mount Abu
D. Dilwara 4. Kanchipuram Codes:
A B C D A B C D 225. The Society of Jesus, whose followers were called Jesuits, was set-up by 229. Match the following List I List II
(Text) (Author)
A. Kitab-al-Hind 1. Ibn Battuta
B. Rehla 2. Al–Biruni
C. Humayun Nama 3. Lohori
D. Badshah Nama 4. Gulbadan Begum Codes:
AB C D A B C D 233. Consider the following statements about colonial economy of Vietnam (Indo-China):
1. The colonial economy in Vietnam was primarily based on rice cultivation and rubber plantations.
2. All the rubber plantations in Vietnam were owned and controlled by a small Vietnamese elite.
3. Indentured Vietnamese labour was widely used in the rubber plantations.
4. Indentured labourers worked on the basis of contracts that did not specify any rights of labourers but gave immense power to the employers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 236. Statement I: The Bethune School, founded in Calcutta in 1849 was the first fruit of the powerful movement for women’s education that arose in the 1840s, and 1850s.
Statement II: The first step in giving modern education to girls was undertaken by Vidyasagar in 1800. 237. Statement II: Ram Mohan Roy in his famous work Gift to Monotheism put forward weighty arguments against belief in many Gods and for the worship of a single God.
Statement II: Ram Mohan Roy in his Precepts of Jesus tried to separate the moral and philosophic message of the New Testament. 240. Under the forceful thrust of British rule, a rapid transformation of the Indian economy took place. In this context, which of the following statements is/ are correct?
1. Indian economy was transformed into a colonial economy in the 19th century whose structure was determined by Britain’s fast developing industrial economy.
2. The influx of cheap Indian products into England gave a great blow to English textile industries.
3. The 19th century saw the collapse of the traditional Indian village economy and fresh economic alignment along commercial lines.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 241. Which of the following sets of newspapers reflected the concerns of educated Indian Muslims during the Khilafat Movement ? 244. Which of the following characteristic(s) describes the nature of religion according to the Rig Veda?
1. Rig Vedic religion can be described a naturalistic polytheism.
2. There are striking similarities between the Rig Vedic religion and the ideas in the Iranian Avesta.
3. Vedic sacrifices were conducted in the house of the priest who was called yajaman.
4. Vedic sacrifices were of two kind – those conducted by the household and those that required rituals specialists.
Select the correct answer using the code give below: 248. Which of the following is not a central tenet of Socialism ? 251. Which of the following was/were connected primarily to the communist ideology ?
1. Kirti Kisan Party
2. Labour Swaraj Party Select the correct answer using the code given below: 252. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I List II
(Editor) (Journal / Newspaper)
A. S.A. Dange 1. Labour-Kisan Gazette
B. Muzaffar Ahmed 2. Inquilab
C. Ghulam Hussain 3. Navayug
D. M. Singaravelu 4. The Socialist Code: 255. Which of the following statements about the musical culture in 18th and 19th century North India is/are not correct:
1. The period was marked by the growing eminence of Sadarang Neamat Khan who introduced the khayal form.
2. A large number of musicians moved out of regional centres to Delhi where they hoped they would receive more employment and patronage.
3. The period was marked by the formation of specific region based gharanas.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 259. The Tungbhadra river provided sustenance of which empire? 261. Who among the following was not a painter at Akbar’s Court? 263. The Rihla was written in 266. In ancient India, the ‘Yaudheyas’ were 267. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I List-II
(King) (Region)
A. Shashanka 1. Assam
B. Kharavela 2. Maharashtra
C. Simuka 3. Orissa
D. Bhaskara Varman 4. Bengal Code:
A B C D 270. After the death of Shivaji, there was a fight for succession between 274. Which of the following statements about the Hastings Plan of 1772 is/ are correct?
1. Each district was to have a civil and a criminal Court.
2. The Judges were helped by native assessors who were skilled in Hindu and Islamic laws.
3. The Sadar Diwani Adalat was mainly meant to settle mercantile cases exceeding ` 10,000 in value.
4. These Courts did not put into place any procedural improvements.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 278. Consider the following statements:
1. In Hind Swaraj, Mahatma Gandhi formulates a conception of part life for the individual as well as the society.
2. Hind Swaraj was the outcome of the experience of Gandhi’s prolonged struggle against colonial raj in India Which of the statement given above is / are correct? 281. Which of the following statements about the Vijayanagara Empire is / are true?
1. The kings claimed to rule on behalf of the God Virupaksha
2. Rulers used the title “Hindu Suratrana”
3. All Royal orders were signed in Kannada, Sanskrit and Tamil
4. Royal Portrait sculpture was now displayed in temples Select the correct answer using the code given below 282. Which of the following statements is /are true ?
1. Faxian’s ‘Gaoseng Faxian zhuani was the earliest first –
hand Chinese account of Buddhist sites and practices in India
2. Faxian was only 25 years old at the times of writing the text
3. Faxian’s main aim in coming to India was to obtain and take back texts containing monastic rules Select the correct answer using the code given below: 285. Which of the following is / are not depicted in the Rajput paintings?
1. The stories of Krishna 2. Ragas and Raginis
3. The deeds of Hamza 4. The deeds of Babur Select the correct answer using the code given below: 289. Which one of the following books was not illustrated with paintings in Akbar’s court? 293. Which one among the following was not an attribute of Samudragupta described in Prayag Prashasti ? 296. Statement I: King Ashoka abolished capital punishment and disbanded his army.
Statement II:
After Kalinga War, Ashoka was remorseful and became a Buddhist. 297. Statement I: The Zamindars were an exploitative class in Mughal India.
Statement II:
The Zamindars often received the support of the peasantry in a large number of agrarian uprisings in North India in the seventeenth century. 300. The followers of Gorakhnath were called: 301. Which of the following statements about the Deccan Riots of 1875 is/are true?
1. The Deccan Riots resulted in protection for peasants through the Deccan Agriculturalists Relief Act of 1879.
2. The riots did not spread to the whole of Maharashtra because of prompt suppression by the British.
3. The British were unable to contain the riots and they spread throughout Maharashtra.
4. The cotton boom in the Deccan that had been caused by the artificial demand generated by the American Civil War caused the impoverishment of the peasants.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 304. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I List-II
(Historian) (Book)
A. Sumit Sarkar 1. The Rise and Growth of Economic Nationalism in India
B. Shahid Amin 2. A Rule of Property for Bengal
C. Ranajit Guha 3. The Swadeshi Movement in Bengal, 1903-1908
D. Bipan Chandra 4. Event, Metaphor, Memory-Chauri Chaura, 1922~1 992 Code: 308. The ‘water frame’ of Richard Arkwright was a device for 311. Consider the following statements about the different meanings of ‘Swaraj’ as articulated by Mahatma Gandhi:
1. Swaraj is intimately linked with Ahimsa (non-violence) and Satyagraha (adherence to truth).
2. Swaraj has two senses-one ‘ political and one beyond the realm of politics.
3. Swaraj is something that requires time and patience to acquire.
4. With determination, Swaraj could be obtained easily and quickly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 312. Which of the following statements about the Ilbert Bill (1883) is/are correct?
1. It proposed to grant limited criminal jurisdiction to native officials.
2. It proposed to grant complete civil and criminal jurisdiction to native officials.
3. The proposed Bill generated opposition from England’s European subjects in India.
4. In spite of opposition to the Bill, it was passed without any modifications.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 315. The epic, Silappadikaram refers to the 319. Which of the following statements about the Shiromani Gurudwara Prabandhak Committee (SGPC) are correct?
1. It began as the political wing of the Singh Sabhas in the late 19th century.
2. It was formed in 1920 as part of the upcoming Akali movement.
3. It was founded to reclaim control of the Sikh shrines from the government manipulated loyalist committees.
4. It formed the Akali Dal to coordinate groups (Jathas) to reclaim control of the shrines.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 321. Alexander Kerensky was 323. During the mid 19th century Industrial Revolution, the average life span of workers in Manchester was 326. The Ryotwari experiment in land revenue was started by 327. Which one of the following statements about the Justice Party is not correct? 330. Statement I: The passing of the Coercive Acts made reconciliation between Britain and her American colonies virtually impossible.
Statement II:
The British Parliament, having issued the Stamp Act in 1765, repealed it later. 334. Statement I: The early Aryans, who were essentially pastoral, did not develop any political structure which could measure up to a State in either ancient or modern sense.
Statement II:
Kingship was the same as tribal chiefship; the term Rajan being used for tribal chief who was primarily a military leader and who ruled over his people and not over any specified area. 338. Due to which of the following factors, the Industrial Revolution took place in England in the eighteenth century?
1. The discovery of coal and iron deposits
2. The discovery of steam power
3. The introduction of railways
4. The regular supply of raw materials Select the correct answer using the code given below. 341. Harshacharita has references to various presents sent by a ruler named Bhaskara to Harshavardhana. Bhaskara belonged to 342. Which one of the following statements about the Harappan Culture is not correct? 345. Who was the editor of the journal Indian Social Reformer that was started in 1890? 349. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I List-II
(Harappan Site) (Modern Name)
A. Dholavira 1. Saurashtra
B. Rakhigarhi 2. Hisar
C. Bhirrana 3. Kadir Island
D. Bhogavo 4. Haryana Code:
A B C D 353. Which of the following statements about the usage of the term ‘barbarian’ is/are correct?
1. It is derived from the Greek word ‘barbaros’ which means a non-Greek.
2. Romans used the term for the Germanic tribes, the Gauls and the Huns.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 356. Name the platform used for ritual purposes by the kings of the Vijayanagara Empire. 357. Who among the following was the founder of Phoenix Settlement? 360. What is the name of the literary genre developed by the Khojas who are a branch of the Ismaili sect? Chapter 2 Indian Polity 21. Financial distribution between the Union and the State takes place on the basis of the recommendations of which one of the following? 24. Consider the following statements
1. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs constitute Consultative Committees of Members of both the Houses of Parliament.
2. The main purpose of these Committees are to provide a forum for formal discussions between the Government and Members of Parliament on polices and programmes of the Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 28. Assertion (A) An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed be a decree of a Civil Court. Reason (R) Award of Lok Adalat is final and binding on all parties, and no appeal lies against thereto before any court Codes 32. Consider the following statements
1. Article 46 of the Constitution of India provides for free legal aid to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
2. Article 14 of the Constitution of India provides for equality before law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 35. With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched Subject List 36. The Veerapa Moily Commission in its report on Administrative Reforms among other aspects has suggested doing away with which one of the following pairs of Articles of the Constitution of India? 39. Department of Official Language (Raj Bhasha Vibhag) comes under which one of the following Ministries? 41. Who among the following was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha? 43. In which one of the following Minsitries the census organisation has been functioning on a permanent footing since 1961? 47. Consider the following statements with respect to the Attorney General of India
1. He is appointed by the President.
2. He must have the same qualifications as are required by a Judge of High Court.
3. In the performance of his duties he shall have the right of audience in all courts of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 50. In India the Supreme Command of the Armed Forces is, vested in the President. This means that in the exercise of this power 51. Which of the following would be construed as a reasonable restriction of the right to freedom’? 54. Who among the following recommends to the Parliament for the abolition of the Legislative Council in a State? 58. Which one of the following jurisdictions of the Indian judiciary covers Public Interest Litigation? 61. Consider the following statements
1. A person who was born on January, 26th, 1951 in Rangoon, whose father was a citizen of India by birth at the time of his birth is deemed to be an Indian citizen by descent.
2. A person who was born on July, 1st 1988 in Itanagar, whose mother is a citizen of India at the time of his birth but the father was not, is deemed to be a citizen of India by birth.
Which of the statements given above is/are corrcet? 62. Which one of the following Commissions is not provided in the Constitution of India? 65. Consider the following statements with respect to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
1. He shall only be removed from office in like manner and on the ground as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
2. He shall not be eligible for further office either under the Government of India or under the Government of any State after he has ceased to hold his office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 66. Under which of the following conditions security deposits of a candidate contesting for a Lok Sabha seat is returned to him/her?
1. The nomination made by the candidate if found to be invalid.
2. The candidate has withdrawn his/her nomination even though it is found valid.
3. The candidate lost the polls but secured l/6th of the total number of valid votes polled in that election.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 69. Which one of the following rights conferred by the Constitution of India is also available to non-citizens? 73. The Constitution (74th) Amendment Act makes mention of the 77. Which of the following statements regarding the Fundamental Duties contained in the Constitution of India are correct?
1. Fundamental Duties can be enforced through writ jurisdiction.
2. Fundamental Duties have formed a part of the Constitution since its adoption.
3. Fundamental Duties became a part of the Constitution in accordance with the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
4. Fundamental Duties are applicable only to the citizens of India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 80. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. A registered voter in India can contest an election to Lok Sabha from any constituency in India.
2. As per the Representation of the People Act, 1951, if a person is convicted of any offence and sentenced to an imprisonment of 2 years or more, he will be disqualified to contest election.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 81. Formal or procedural democracy does not by any means guarantee 84. The core of political democracy lies in the basic axiom of electoral democracy which is based on 88. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. In India, the constitutional remedy under Article 32 is available only in case of Fundamental Rights, not in the case of rights which follow from some other provision in the Constitution.
2. Both the Supreme Court and High Courts can issue the writs of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo warranto only for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 92. Which one among the following is not correct?
A special category state invariably 95. Which of the following statements regarding writ of certiorari is/are correct?
1. There should be court, tribunal or an officer having legal authority to determine the questions of deciding Fundamental Rights with a duty to act judicially.
2. Write of certiorari is available during the tendency of proceedings before a subordinate court.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 96. The Civil Liability of Nuclear Damage Bill, passed in the Lok Sabha on August 2010, does not make provision for 99. Which one among the following is not true of the Planning Commission? 101. Statement I ‘ The Fundamental Rights protect the rights and liberties of the people against encroachment by the legislative and executive wings of the government.
Statement II The Fundamental Rights guarantee the rights of the citizens. 103. Statement I Adjournment is a short recess within the session of the Parliament ordered by the Presiding Officer of the House.
Statement II When the Presiding Officer adjourns the House without fixing any date or time of the next meeting of the House, it is known as adjournment sine die. 107. Consider the following statements about the powers of the President of India
1. The President can direct that any matter on which decision has been taken by a Minister should be placed before the Council of Ministers.
2. The President can call all information relating to proposals for legislation.
3. The President has the right to address and send messages to either House of the Parliament.
4. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the Union must be communicated to the President.
Which of the statements given above are correct? 110. Which of the following are envisaged as being part of the ‘Right against Exploitation’ in the Constitution of India?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.
2. Abolition of untouchability.
3. Protection of the interests of the minorities.
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 111. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court of India gave verdicts which have a direct bearing on the Centre-State relations? 114. Which of the following Committees are the Committees of Parliament?
1. Public Accounts Committee
2. Estimates Committee
3. Committee on Public Undertakings Select the correct answer using the code given below 118. Which one among the following is not guaranteed by the Constitution of India? 121. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation the duration of the Lok Sabha can be extended for a period 122. Which one among the following is the distinguishing factor between a pressure group and a political party? 125. Which among the following conditions are necessary for the issue of writ of quo warranto?
1. The office must be public and must be created by a Statute or by the constitution itself.
2. The office must be a substantive one and not merely the function or employment of a servant at the will and during the pleasure of another.
3. There has been a contravention of the Constitution or a Statute or Statutory Instrument, in appointing such person to that office.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 126. Under which law it is prescribed that all proceedings in the Supreme Court of India shall be in English language? 129. Suppose a Legislation was passed by the Parliament imposing certain restrictions on newspapers. These included page ceiling, price and advertisements. The legislation is included in the Ninth Schedule to the Constitution of India. In this context, which one among the following statements is correct? 133. Take the case of dignity and equal rights for women. How do democracies help? 137. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may be removed from office by 140. Delimitation of constituencies and determination of constituencies reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes are done by 141. With reference to Lok Adalats, which one among the following statements is correct? 144. The Rights to Information means and includes
1. Inspection of documents.
2. Taking out files from office to any place desired by the applicant.
3. Taking photograph of files.
4. Obtaining information in tapes.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 148. Which one among the following is not a recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission on the appointment of the Governor in a state? 152. Which one among the following countries redefined the principles of ‘Panchashila’ for the purpose of domestic politics? 155. India’s Look East Policy was conceived in the early 1990s at a time when India was in the process of adjusting to the post-cold war watershed changes in the international geostrategic environment. The Look East Policy
1. reflects both historical imperatives and contemporary compulsion of the post-cold war new world order.
2. seeks to optimise India’s synergies in the extended Asia-Pacific neighbourhood.
3. has led to India’s participation in Asia-Pacific forums like ASEAN, East Asia Summit, BIMSTEC and other institutions.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 156. Which one among the following committees of the Parliament of India has no members of the Rajya Sabha? 159. The Constituent Assembly of India convened to prepare the Constitution of India appointed a sub-committee headed by Gopinath Bordoloi. Which of the following recommendations was/were made by the committee?
1. Fifth Schedule for the North-East Frontier (Assam) Tribal and Excluded Areas.
2. Constitution of District Councils in all autonomous districts of Assam.
3. Sixth Schedule for the North-East Frontier (Assam) Tribal and Excluded Areas.
4. Demarcation of territories in North-East India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 161. Besides representation, the Parliament of India is also a deliberative body with diverse functions. Which one among the following is not a function of the Parliament of India? 163. The Government of India Act, 1919
1. Established a bicameral legislature at the centre.
2. Introduced dyarchy in the provincial executive.
3. Introduced a Federal System of Government in India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 167. Electoral disputes arising out of Presidential and Vice-
Presidential Elections are settled by 170. In the SR Bommai vs Union of India case, which one among the following features of the Constitution of India was upheld by the Supreme Court as a basic structure? 171. Which of the following freedoms is not specifically mentioned in the Constitution of India cas a Fundamental Right but has been subsequently upheld by the Supreme Court as such? 174. Among the following ideals and philosophy, identify those enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution of India.
1. Sovereign democratic republic.
2. Socialism and secularism.
3. Capitalism and free trade.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 178. The functions of the committee on estimates, as incorporated in the Constitution of India, shall be to
1. report what economies, improvements in organisation, efficiency or administrative reform may be effected.
2. suggest alternative policies in order to bring about efficiency and economy in administration.
3. examine whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the policy implied in the estimates.
4. examine the reports, if any, of the Comptroller and Auditor General on the public undertakings.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 181. The citizenship means
1. full civil and political rights of the citizens.
2. the right of suffrage for election to the House of the People (of the Union) and the Legislative Assembly of every state.
3. the right to become a Member of the Parliament and Member of Legislative Assemblies.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 182. The Committee on Public Accounts under the Constitution of India is meant for
1. the examination of accounts showing the appropriation of sums granted by the House for the expenditure of the Government of India
2. scrutinising the report of the Comptroller and Auditor-
General
3. suggesting the form in which estimates shall be presented to the Parliament Select the correct answer using the codes given below 185. There are provisions in the Constitution of India which empower the Parliament to modify or annual the operation of certain provisions of the Constitution without actually amending them. They include
1. any law made under Article 2 (relating to admission or establishment of new states)
2. any law made under Article 3 (relating to formation of new states)
3. amendment of First Schedule and Fourth Schedule Select the correct answer using the codes given below 186. The Annual Financial Statement of the Government of India in respect of each financial year shall be presented to the House on such day as the 189. After a Bill has been passed by the Houses of the Parliament, it is presented to the President who may either give assent to the Bill or with hold his assent. The President may 193. The legislative power of the Parliament includes making laws
1. on matters not enumerated in the Concurrent List and State List.
2. in respect of entries in the State List if two or more State Legislatures consider it desirable
3. for implementing any treaty agreement or convention with any country even if it falls in the State List.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 197. ‘The Draft Constitution as framed only provides a machinery for the government of the country. It is not a contrivance to install any particular party in power as has been done in some countries. Who should be in power is left to be determined by the people, as it must be, if the system is to satisfy the test of democracy’. The above passage from Constituent Assembly debates is attributed to 200. Which of the following about the principles of Panchsheel are correct ?
1. These are a set of five principles governing relations between States
2. The assumption of Panchsheel was that newly independent States after decolonization would be able to develop a new and more principled approach to international relations
3. The first formal codification in treaty form was done in an agreement between China and India Select the correct answer using the code given below: 201. Which among the following about the Rangarajan Panel Report on poverty estimation (submitted in July, 2014) is/ are correct?
1. The report states that three out of ten people in India are poor
2. The report endorsed the Tendulkar committee suggestion on determining poverty line in India Select the correct answer using the code given below: 204. Which of the following is/are department(s) in Ministry of Defence ?
1. Department of Defence
2. Department of Defence Research and Development
3. Department of Defence Production
4. Department of Defence Finance Select the correct answer using the code given below: 208. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct for the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India ?
1. It was inserted by the first amendment in 1951.
2. It includes those laws which are beyond the purview of judicial review.
3. It was inserted by the 42nd Amendment.
4. The laws in the Ninth Schedule are primarily those which pertain to the matters of national security.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 212. Which of the following is not true of Article 32 of the Indian Constitution ? 215. Which of the following is/are not central feature(s) of Article 343 of the Constitution of India?
1. Hindi in Devanagari Script shall be the national language of the Union.
2. The official language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari Script.
3. English language shall continue to be used for official purposes within States.
4. If two or more States agree, Hindi language should be the official language of communication between the States.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 216. A Bill is deemed to be a ‘Money Bill’ if it has any provisions dealing with
1. imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax
2. appropriation of money from the Consolidated Fund of India
3. imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties
4. payment of fee for licences or fee for service rendered Select the correct answer using the code given below. 219. Which one of the following statements is not correct ? 221. The Constitution of India guarantees freedom of thought and expression to all its citizens subject to
1. implementation of Directive Principles
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Right to Equality Select the correct answer using the code given below. 223. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I List-II
(Leader) (Party)
A. Shyama Prasad 1. Communist Party of Mukherjee India
B. Minoo Masani 2. Bharatiya Jana Sangh
C. S. A. Dange 3. Swatantra Party
D. Ashok Mehta 4. Praja Socialist Party Code:
A B C D 227. Which one of the following statements with regard to India’s economy between 1814 to 1860 is not correct? 230. A writ of Habeas Corpus for the release of a person can be issued
1. where the arrest or detention has taken place in contravention of the procedure established by law
2. to secure the release of a person imprisoned on a criminal charge
3. where the arrest has taken place for contempt of Court or the Parliament Select the correct answer using the code given below. 231. Which of the following laws have been repealed by the Constitution of India?
1. The Government of India Act, 1935
2. The Indian Independence Act, 1947
3. The Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949
4. The Preventive Detention Act, 1950 Select the correct answer using the code given below. 234. Freedom of conscience under the Constitution of India is subject to
1. public order, morality and health
2. a law providing for social welfare and reform
3. opening Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all Hindus
4. defamation or incitement to an offence Select the correct answer using the code given below. 238. Which one of the following statements about Electoral Government in India is not correct? 241. The Right to Education was added to the fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India through the 242. The category of Overseas citizens of india was entered in the citizenship Act of India through an amendement in the year: 245. A Member of Lok Sabha does not become disqualified to continue as a Member of the House if the Member 246. The National Policy for Children, 2013 recognizes every person as a child below the age of: 249. Consider the following statements about the President of India.
1. The President has the right to address and send message to The Council of Ministers to elicit specific information
2. The President can call for information relating to proposal for legislation
3. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to administration of the Union must be communicated to the President Which of the statements given above are correct? 253. What were the 12 states of the Sikh confederacy called ? 257. Consider the following statements:
1. The President of India shall have the power to appoint and remove the Speaker of Lok Sabha
2. The Speaker has to discharge the function of his office himself throughout of his office term and cannot delegate his function to the Deputy Speaker during his absence from the station or during his illness.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct? 260. Which among the following Acts were repealed by Article 395 of the Constitution of India?
1. The Government of lndia Act, 1935
2. The Indian Independence Act, 1947
3. The Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949
4. The Government of India Act, 1919 Select the correct answer using the code given below. 261. According to Census 2011, which one of the following is the correct sequence of States in decreasing order of their total size of population? 264. Who among the following Prime Ministers of India were defeated by a vote of No Confidence ?
1. Morarji Desai
2. Viswanath Pratap Singh
3. H.D. Deve Gowda
4. Atal Bihari Vajpayee Select the correct answer using the code given below: 268. Which of the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly of India is/are correct?
1. The Assembly was elected indirectly by the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies.
2. The elections were held on the basis of Universal Adult Franchise.
3. The scheme of election was laid down by the Cabinet Delegation.
4. The distribution of seats was done on the basis of the Mountbatten Plan.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 272. Which one of the following statements is not correct with respect to Article 32 of the Constitution of India? 275. The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India pertains to the administration of tribal areas in which of the following States? 276. Which one of the following is not true about the powers of the Supreme Court? 279. Under Article 352 of the Constitution of India, an emergency can be declared it security of any part of India is threatened by
1. war
2. external aggression
3. armed rebellion
4. internal disturbance Select the correct answer using the code given below. 281. The right to form associations and unions is a right 283. Which of the following statements with regard to the conduct of elections in India is / are not correct?
1. The responsibility for the prepara tion of the electoral rolls is vested in the Election Commission of India.
2. The Model Code of Conduct comes into existence as soon as the date of the election is announced.
3. The laws relating to delimitation of constituencies are made by the Election Commission of India.
4. No election shall be called in question except by an election petition.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 287. Arrange the following Commissions chronologically on the basis of their date of setting:
1. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission
2. The Eleventh Finance Commission
3. Punchhi Commission
4. Sarkaria Commission Select the correct answer using the code given below. 290. Which of the following statements is/ are correct regarding Right to Education in India?
1. Free and compulsory education should be provided to all children of the age of six to fourteen years.
2. The imperative of the provision of the Right to Education Act, 2009 is that schools must have qualified teachers and basic infrastructure.
3. There should be quality education without any discrimination on the ground of economic, social and cultural background.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 291. Which of the following statements regarding Article 21 of the Constitution of India is/ are correct?
1. Article 21 is violated when the under-trial prisoners are detained under judicial custody for an indefinite period.
2. Right to life is one of the basic human rights and not even the State has the authority to violate that right.
3. Under Article 21, the right of a woman to make reproductive choices is not a dimension of personal liberty.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 294. Which of the following are the powers of the Supreme Court of India?
1. Original jurisdiction in a dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
2. The power to hear appeals from the High Courts
3. Passing decrees and orders for doing justice in any matter before it.
4. Render advice to the President of India in matters of law Select the correct answer using the code given below. 298. Which one of the following statements relating to protection against arrest and detention of individuals under Article 22 is not correct? 301. In which two Indian States of the four mentioned below, it is necessary to hold certain minimum educational qualifications to be eligible to contest Panchayat Elections?
1. Punjab 2. Haryana
3. Karnataka 4. Rajasthan Select the correct answer using the code given below. 302. Which one of the following constitutional authorities inquires and decides in case of doubts and disputes arising out of election of the President and Vice President of India? 305. A Joint Sitting of the Parliament is resorted to, for resolving the deadlock between two Houses of the Parliament for passing which of the following Bills?
1. Money Bill
2. Constitutional Amendment Bill
3. Ordinary Bill Select the correct answer using the code given below. 306. Which of the following statements about the 73rd and 74th Constitution Amendment Act is/are correct?
1. It makes it mandatory for all States to establish a three-tier system of Government.
2. Representatives should be directly elected for five years.
3. There should be mandatory reservation of onethird of all seats in all Panchayats at all levels for women.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 309. Which of the following features were borrowed by the Constitution of India from the British Constitution?
1. Rule of Law
2. Law-making Procedure
3. Independence of Judiciary
4. Parliamentary System Select the correct answer using the code given below. 313. The President of India is elected by an Electoral College comprising of elected members of which of the following?
1. Both the Houses of the Parliament
2. The Legislative Assemblies of States
3. The Legislative Councils of States
4. The Legislative Assemblies of NCT of Delhi and Puducherry Select the correct answer using the code given below. 317. Constitutional safeguards available to Civil Servants are ensured by 320. Why was constitutional amendment needed for introducing GST? Chapter 3 Geography of India & World 21. Which one of the following is the capital of Cambodia? 23. Which one of the following districts does not have a gold field? 27. At which one of the following places, East-West corridor connecting Silchar and Porbandar and North-South corridor connecting Sri Nagar and Kanyakumari intersect each other? 31. Consider the following statements
1. Dinosaurs roamed the Earth during the Mesozoic Era.
2. All Dinosaurs and other reptiles such as Ichthyosaurus and Pterosaurus became extinct due to unknown reasons in Triassic Period.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct? 34. Which one of the following iron and steel plants was established with the British collaboration? 35. Which of the following divides India into northern and Southern parts? 38. Assertion (A) The percentage of the Earth’s surface covered by India is 2.4%.
Reason (R) On the Mercator’s map of the world, India is shown much smaller than Canada. 41. Which waterway separates India from Sri Lanka? 42. Which one of the following countries is not a UN member country? 46. Which one of the following diagrams shows the direction and duration of wind? 49. Which one of the following is correct?
Great bear is a 50. Assertion (A) In temperate cyclones, winds below from the periphery towards its centre.
Reason (R) There is high pressure in the centre of temperate cyclone. 53. Which one of the following has geographical position of 0° latitude and 0° longitude? 57. In which one of the following places is the headquarters of North-Eastern Railway located? 61. Rihand Valley Project is located in which one of the following states? 64. Pattadakal group of monuments are located in which one of the following states? 65. In which one of the following states is Ranganathittu Bird Sanctuary located? 68. Which one of the following Indian states does not have a common international border with Bangladesh? 72. For which one of the following is Sualkuchi famous? 76. The hill station of Coonoor is located in which one of the followng states? 79. The shaded area in the map given below is the major producer of which one of the following? 80. Which one of the following states is the largest producer of black pepper in India? 81. Which one of the following is the longest national highway in India? 83. Madhya Pradesh shares its border with how many States? 87. Which one of the following States of India is the largest producer of lignite coal? 91. Which one of the following is the oldest mountain range in India? 94. Which one of the following is an object with such a strong gravitational field that even light cannot escape from its surface? 95. Which one of the following is the tide produced as a consequence of Moon and Sun pulling the Earth in the same direction? 98. In which one of the following islands of India is an active volcano found? 101. Assertion (A) Physiological density is preferable to arithmetic density as an index of population density.
Reason (R) Physiological density is based on arable land while arithmetic density is based on total area. 102. Assertion (A) Water in an open pond remains cool even on a hot summer day.
Reason (R) Water on heating evaporates and heat energy gets converted into latent heat. 106. Consider the following statements
1. National parks are a special category of protected areas of land and sea coasts where people are an integral part of the system.
2. Sanctuaries are concerned with conservation of particular species.
3. Biosphere reserves are connected with the habitat of a particular wild animal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 109. Sal trees are the typical species of 110. Match the following List l (Place) List II (Famous for)
A. Balaghat 1. Oil field
B. Katni 2. Iron ore
C. Singrauli 3. Manganese
D. Kalol 4. Bauxite
5. Coal Codes A B C D 113. Which of the following factors is/are responsible for high concentration of jute mills in the Hugli basin?
Select the correct answer using the code given below
1. Nearness to coal fields.
2. Convenient dry climate for spinning and weaving. 117. Consider the following statements
1. In the month of July, the Inter Tropical Convergence Zone is located in the Indo Gangetic plain.
2. Northen Inter Tropical Convergence Zone is the zone of clouds and heavy rainfall.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct? 121. Consider the following statements
1. Jim Corbett National Park is the oldest national park of india.
2. It was one of the nine tiger reserves created at the launch of the Project Tiger in 1973.
3. Initially it was named as ‘Hailey National Park’.
Which of the statements given above are correct? 124. What is the correct sequence of the location of the following sea ports of India from South to North? 125. The hill range that separates the State of Manipur from the State of Nagaland is known as 128. The pacific Islands from new Guinea South East-wards to the Fiji Islands’ group is called 132. Which one of the following countries is located South of the equator? 136. Which one of the following trains/railways passes through Germany, France, Austria, Hungary and Romania? 139. The concept of sustainable development relates to 140. The jet streams are 141. If the movement of the Earth’s crust or a major climatic change makes an old stream young, it is called 143. Which of the following statements with regard to rainfall in India is/are correct?
1. Most of the rainfall in India is due to the South-
West monsoon.
2. In South India, rainfall decreases away from the Eastern Chats.
Select the correct answer using the code given below 147. Which of the following seas are enclosed?
1. Andaman Sea 2. Arab Sea
3. Sea of Azov 4. Bering Sea Select the correct answer using the codes given below 151. Which among the following Rajdhani trains covers the longest distance? 154. Consider the following places of Kashmir region
(1) Sri Nagar (2) Gilgit
(3) Kargil (4) Banihal Arrange the above place from North to South using the code given below [2010-II] 155. If the earth did not have an atmosphere, temperature extremes between day and night would 158. Which one of the following is not associated with monsoon climate in India? 161. Which among the following states of India have common borders with Pakistan? 162. Which among the following pairs are correct?
1. Cirque and Col Glacial topography
2. Barkhans and Yardans Desert topography
3. Eddies and Potholes Fluvial topography Select the correct answer using the code given below 166. Which one of the following countries does not have a border with China? 169. The Earth is an oblate spheroid and not a perfect sphere.
This is because
l. the Earth has a rotational motion and the rotational speed increases as one goes from the poles towards the equator.
2. the equator experiences greater gravitational pull from the sun.
3. the intensity of sunlight received at the equator is greater than that at the poles.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 170. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of increasing velocity of wind? 173. During the Indian monsoon season 177. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? 181. Statement I Wind is deflected to the right in Northern Hemisphere and to the left in Southern hemisphere from its normal course.
Statement II Earth rotates from West-to-East. 184. What is the similarity between Milwaukee Deep, Java Trench and Challenger Deep? 185. Wind is often found to blow in a hot summer day due to 188. The agricultural production in different parts of India is very much affected by varying intensities of floods and droughts. Which one of the following measures would not be sustainable in this respect? 192. Global Positioning System (GPS) is associated with
1. determining latitude and longitude
2. constellation of satellites
3. US system of GPS and Russian system of GLONASS
4. navigation Select the correct answer using the codes given below 196. Match the following
A. Tropical evergreen forests 1. 100-200 cm
B. Tropical deciduous forests 2. Above 200 cm
C. Tropical dry forests 3. Less than 50 cm
D. Arid forests 4. Above 300 cm
5. 50-100 cm List I
(Natural Vegetation of India) List II
(Annual Rainfall Received) Codes A B C D A B C D 199. Why do Fold Mountains have enormous thickness of sedimentary rocks? 200. The Vindhyan system of rocks is important for the production of 201. Which of the following best explain why the lower course of a river is sometimes chocked with sediments?
1. The valley of a river is widest in its lower course.
2. The velocity of a river in its lower course is low.
3. The delta sometimes develops in a river’s lower course.
4. Much of the river water is drawn for irrigation in the lower course Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 203. Match the following
A. Manas 1. Meghalaya
B. Pachmarhi 2. Asom
C. Nokrek 3. Madhya Pradesh
D. Achanakmar Amarkantak 4. Chhattisgarh List I
(Biosphere Reserve) List II
(Places) Codes A B C D A B C D 207. The rainfall distribution pattern over the Ganga basin decreases from the 211. Which of the following statements regarding red soils of India is/are correct?
1. The colour of the soil is red due to ferric oxide content.
2. Red soils are rich in lime, humous and potash.
3. They are porous and have friable structure.
Select the correct answer using the code given below 214. When we consider 15° meridian on a world map or globe and count them in an Eastward direction starting with Greenwich meridian (0°), we find that the time of this meridian is 215. The broken hills famous for zinc and lead are located in 218. The thermal equator is found 221. Which one among the following cities never get the vertical rays of the Sun all through the year? 222. Climate change resulting in the rise of temperature may benefit which of the countries/regions? 226. Statement I El Nino is a temperature rising phenomenon over the Pacific Ocean and usually causes dry monsoon in South Asia.
Statement II Tsunamis are usually not noticed as the massive ocean waves move silently but assume destructive form as these travel through shallow waters of continental shelves. 229. In wildlife conservation which one among the following best defines an ‘endemic species’? 230. Match the following List I
(Tiger Reserve) List II
(State)
A. Indravati 1. Karnatka
B. Periyar 2. Odisha
C. Simlipal 3. Kerala
D. Bandipur 4. Chhattisgarh Codes A B C D A B C D 233. South Pacific island nation Samoa, positioned to the East of the International Date Line, on May 2011 decided to forego a day and shift to the time zone on its West. The reason for this shifting is to 237. The country that shares longest border with India is 241. Over 90% of the world’s biomass is in 244. Which one among the following statements is correct with regard to the C-5M Super Galaxy? 245. Lack of atmosphere around the Moon is due to 248. The soil formed by wind dust in and around hot deserts is called 252. Which one among the following sequences of water bodies, from lower to higher salinity concentration, is correct? 256. In absorption of insolation, the most significant part is played by 259. Farmers are requested to mix lime with soil while farming their fields. This is because 260. Match the following Lis t I Lis t II
(River) (Tributary)
A. Ganga 1. Chambal and Ken
B. Indus 2. Wainganga and Indravati
C. Yamuna 3. Chenab and Sutlej D.Godavari 4. Gomti and Kosi Codes A B C D A B C D 261. Tank irrigation is practised mainly in Peninsular India because
1. undulating relief and hard rocks make it difficult to dig canals and wells
2. rivers are rainfed
3. of compact nature of population and agricultural fields Select the correct answer using the codes given below Codes 263. Which of the following are responsible for the decrease of per capita holding of cultivated land in India?
1. Low per capita income.
2. Rapid rate of increase of population.
3. Practice of dividing land equally among the heirs.
4. Use of traditional techniques Select the correct answer using the codes given below 267. There are three distinct characters of temperature stratification of atmosphere around the Earth. Which one among the following is the correct arrangement of the layers
(from the Earth’s surface upwards)? 271. Statement I The planet Neptune appears blue in colour.
Statement II The presence of methane gas in the atmosphere of Neptune is responsible for its colour 274. Gaddis are 275. During the recent venus transit (June 2012) bracket, the planet appeared as a tiny black circle moving on the Sun.
The black colour on the Sun is because the planet 278. Match the following 3 List I List II
(Hill Station) (Location in Map)
A. Dharamsala
B. Almora
B. Nainital
D. Darjeeling 2 4 1 Codes A B C D 281. Which among the following phenomenas can occur when very warm and humid air is rising over a mass of a very cold air?
1. Calm weather
2. Snowfall
3. Storms and cyclonic storms
4. Intense rain and hail Select the correct answer using the codes given below 282. Match the following List I (Biosphere Reserve) List II (State)
A. Nilgiri 1. Odisha B.Manas 2. Madhya Pradesh
C. Panchmarhi 3. Tamul Nadu
D. Simeslipal 4. Asom Codes A B C D A B C D 286. The Karewas of Kashmir refers to which among the following types of deposits? 289. Which one among the following is a cold ocean current? 290. Which parts of the Earth’s surface experience least variation in incoming solar radiation throughout the year? 293. Which one among the following statesments about the International Date Line is not correct ? 297. The planetary winds that blow from the sub-tropical high pressure belts to the equator are known as 301. ‘Global Dimming’ means 304. Which of the following statements about Nathu la Pass are correct?
1. It links Sikkim with Tibet.
2. It was the main artery of the ancient Silk Route.
3. It was reopened in the year 2006.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 305. Red soil colour is caused by 308. Amarkantak plateau in the Maikal hills marks the origin of the river 312. Which of the following are true of matrilineal societies?
1. Newly married couple stays with the woman’s parents.
2. As per the rules of inheritance, the property passes from mother to daughter.
3. Women play a dominant role in the family.
4. Examples of matrilineal societies are those of the Khasi and Jaintia tribes of Meghalaya.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 316. Consider the following sanctuaries of India
1. Periyar 2. Dachigam
3. Sariska 4. Kanha Which one among the following is the correct sequence of location of the above sanctuaries from South to North? 319. Why is Himalayan region poor in mineral resources? 320. Albedo effect would be relatively higher in 321. Match the following 1.
.
2 3.
4.
List I List II
(Hydroelectric power station) (Location in map)
A. Nagarjuna Sagar
B. Mettur
C. Hirakund
D. Sileru Codes:
A B C D A B C D 323. Statement I Typical laterite soils in India are generally fertile.
Statement II Laterite soils generally experience leaching. 327. Which of the following are UNESCO recognised world heritage sites?
1. Caves of Ajanta.
2. Temple and Caves at Ellora.
3. Mandapas of Mahabalipurarn.
4. Caves of Kanheri.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 331. Veliconda group of low hills is a structural part of 334. Arrange the locations of four oil refineries of india from west to East. 335. Which of the following statements regarding the duration of day and night is correct? 338. Match the following List I
(Hydroelectric power station) List II
(Location in the map)
A. Srisailam
B. Sabarigin
C. Hirakud
D. Sileru 1.
2.
3.
4.
Codes A B C D 341. What would be the influence on the weather conditions when in mid-winter a feeble high pressure develops over the North-Western part of India?
1. High and dry winds would blow outward from this high pressure area.
2. The Northern plain would become cold.
3. Scorching winds (locally called loo) would blow during the day time.
4. There would be torrential rains brought by thunderstorms.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 342. Which of the following is/are direct source(s) of information about the interior of the Earth?
1. Earthquake wave 2. Volcano
3. Gravitational force 4. Earth magnetism Select the correct answer using the codes given below 346. A typical black hole is always specified by 349. Consider the following statements regarding ground water in India:
1. The large scale exploitation of ground water is done with the help of tube-wells.
2. The demand for ground water started increasing with the advent of green revolution.
3. The total replenishable ground water reserves is highest in the hilly tracts of Sikkim, Nagaland and Tripura.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 350. Consider the diagram given below: 1012 mb A B 1020 mb 998 mb C The above diagram represents the pressure conditions of three different places, viz., A, B and C. Which of the following is the correct direction of movement of winds ? 353. Which of the following methods is/are suitable for soil conservation in hilly region?
1. Terracing and contour bunding
2. Shifting cultivation
3. Contour ploughing Select the correct answer using the codes given below 357. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I List II
(Phenomenon) (Date)
A. Summer solstice 1. 21st June
B. Winter solstice 2. 22nd December
C. Vernal Equinox 3. 23rd September
D. Autumnal 4. 21st March Equinox Code:
A B C D 361. Which of the following is/are basically meant to be deployed in the northern borders of India for monitoring the borders and also to stop smuggling and illegal immigration ?
1. Assam Rifles
2. Border Security Force
3. Indo Tibet Border Police
4. National Security Guards Select the correct answer using the code given below: 364. Statement I: India’s off shore and deep sea fish catch is very poor considering the marine potential.
Statement II: Indian coast does not have many gulfs, bays, estuaries and backwaters. 365. Statement I: Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused by the combined effects of the gravitational forces exerted by the Moon and the Sun, and the rotation of the Earth.
Statement II: Earth rotates from the West towards the East once in 24 hours with respect to the Sun. 368. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I
(Hill range of Central India)
A. Satpura
B. Mahadeo
C. Vindhya
D. Maikala List II
(Location in map) 1 2 3 4 Code:
A B C D 372. The Earth without rotational movement would result into
1. no sun-rise and sun-set.
2. no occurrence of day and night cycle.
3. only one season.
Select the correct answer using the code given below 376. In the absence of Cold Labrador Current, which one among the following would happen ? 379. Consider the following statements with regard to cold waves in winter season in northern India:
1. There is lack of maritime influence.
2. Northern India is nearer to the Himalayan region.
3. Air mass comes from polar regions to northern India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? 380. If 82° 30′ east longitude (Allahabad) shows 6: 00 am of Sunday (local time), what would be the local time of Florida
(USA) located on 82° west longitude ? 381. Ozone layer of the Earth’s atmosphere is important for living organisms because it 383. Tank irrigation is commonly found in South-Central parts of India. What could be the reason ?
1. Insufficient shallow ground water
2. Rocky plateau with impervious surface depression
3. Undulating terrain helps in accumulation of rain water in depression or man-made tank Select the correct answer using the code given below: 387. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I List II (Coast)
(Ocean current)
A. Humboldt 1. Namibia – Angola
B. North Atlantic Drift 2. Chile – Peru
C. Benguela 3. Mozambique – Madagascar
D. Agulhas 4. United Kingdom Norway Code: 391. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I List-II
(Geological time scale) (Life-form)
A. Pleistocene 1. Mammals
B. Paleocene 2. Human genus
C. Permian 3. Invertebrates
D. Cambrian 4. Frogs Code:
A B C D 394. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I List-II
(City) (Earthquake zone)
A. Kolkata 1. Zone V
B. Guwahati 2. Zone IV
C. Delhi 3. Zone III
D. Chennai 4. Zone II Code:
A B C D 395. Which of the following statements with regard to Portland Cement are Correct?
1. Silica imparts strength to cement.
2. Alumina makes the cement quick setting
3. Excess of lime increases the strength of cement.
4. Calcium sulphate decreases the initial setting time of cement Select the correct answer using the code 398. If a ship has to go from Chennai to Kochi, it has to go around Sri Lanka rather than crossing through the Palk Strait. Why ? 401. Which one of the following is the pattern of circulation around a low-pressure area in the northern hemisphere? 402. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I List-II
(Farming area) (State)
A. Doab 1. Assam
B. Char 2. Karnataka
C. Maidan 3. Punjab
D. Terai 4. Uttar Pradesh Code:
A B C D 406. Which of the following elements are found in highest and lowest quantities respectively in the crust of the earth? 409. Which of the following statements is / are correct ?
1. The Earth is nearest to the sun at Perihelion, which generally occurs on January 3
2. The Earth is farthest away from the Sun at Perihelion, which generally occurs on July 4
3. The Earth is farthest away from the Sun at Aphelion, which generally occurs on July 4
4. The Earth is nearest to the Sun at Aphelion, which generally occurs on January 3 Select the correct answer using the code given below: 41.. The Mahatma Gandhi National Marine Park is located in: 41.. Consider the following statements:
1. Most of the coal and the ferrous group of minerals in India occur in the peninsula, south of the Vindhyas
2. The peninsular India once formed part of the supercontinent which included Australia, Antarctica, Africa and South America Which of the statments given above is / are correct ? 41.. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given planets in increasing order of their size (diameter) ? 41.. Stalactites and stalagmites are features of: 41.. The ‘eye’ of the cyclone has: 41.. Which one of the following is the reason due to which the wind in the southern hemisphere is deflected towards its left ? 41.. Consider the following tributaries of river Brahmaputra:
1. Lohit 2. Tista
3. Subansiri 4. Sankosh Arrange the above rivers from west to east: 41.. Which one of the following is the cause of long -term sealevel change ? 41.. Which one of the following islands is of volcanic origin ? 41.. Which of the following statements relating to the Bandung Conference on Afro – Asian Resurgence (1955) are correct?
1. Bandung Conference was organized by Indonesia, Myanmar (Burma), Ceylon (Sri Lanka), India, and Pakistan in which 29 Countries representing more than half of the world’s population sent delegates
2. The conference reflected the five sponsors dissatisfaction with what they regarded as a reluctance by the Westen power to consult with them on decisions affecting Asia
3. The Conference was concerned over tension between the People’s Republic of China and the United States Select the correct answer using the code given below: 421. Which of the following statements about India’s scientific and research mission in Antarctica is / are correct ?
1. The first scientific base station in Antarctica was Dakshin Gangotri
2. Dakshin Gangotri is now being used as supply base and transit camp
3. The Maitri station is manned throughout the year for scientific activities Select the correct answer using the code given below: 424. Which one of the following gases is released mostly from landfills in urban areas? 425. Which of the following statements regarding Mediterranean and Monsoon climate is / are correct?
1. Precipitation in Mediterranean climate is in winter while in monsoon climate it is mostly in summer
2. The annual range of temperature in Mediterranean climate is higher than the Monsoon climate
3. Rainy and dry seasons are found in both the climates Select the correct answer using the code given below: 428. Consider the following map of India: The areas marked in the map given above account for the production of which one of the following cash crops? 432. Which of the following pairs of Indian State and tribal population are correct?
1. Madhya Pradesh: Largest tribal population
2. Mizoram: Highest percentage of tribal population out of the total population of the State
3. Chhattisgarh: Second largest tribal population after Madhya Pradesh
4. Arunachal Pradesh: Second highest percentage of tribal population out of the total population of the State after Mizoram Select the correct answer using the code given below. 436. Which one of the following pairs of lakes is connected by 500 Canal? 439. Which one of the following statements concerning the natural vegetation of India is not correct? 440. Which one of the following is not related to wind erosion? 441. Which one of the following statements is not correct? 443. Which one of the following fishing banks is located off the coast of the United Kingdom ? 447. The ratio of gross cropped area to the net sown area is called 451. Tsunami waves are the undersea occurrence of earthquake exceeding 7.5 on Richter scale. Which one of the following statements regarding this is not correct? 454. The fact that the planets move around the Sun, not in circles but in ellipses, was first demonstrated by 455. Which one of the following ports is located on estuary? 458. Which one of the following statements with regard to Jet stream, an upper level tropospheric wave, is not correct? 461. Which one of the following islands is the largest? 462. Who among the following geographers is related to ‘primate city’ concept? 466. The phenomenon of ‘demographic dividend’ of a country relates to 469. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I
(Mountain Range)
A. Satpura
B. Vindhya
C. Aravalli
D. Mahadeo List-II
(Location in Map) Code:
A B C D 470. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I List-II
(Industrial Region) (Country)
A. Leipzig 1. USA
B. Detroit 2. UK
C. Lorraine 3. France
D. Cumberland 4. Germany Code:
A B C D 473. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I List-II
(Strait) (Countries)
A. Bass Strait 1. UK and France
B. Davis Strait 2. Australia and Tasmania
C. Dover Strait 3. USA and Cuba
D. Florida Strait 4. Canada and Greenland Code:
A B C D 477. Which of the following lakes is/are situated in Ladakh?
1. Tso kar
2. Pangong Tso
3. Tsomgo
4. Tso Morir Select the correct answer using the code given below. Chapter 4 Economics 21. Fiscal Policy in India is formulated by 22. Statement I Deficit financing does not lead to inflation if adopted in small doses.
Statement II Deficit financing is an often used tool for financing budgetary deficits. Codes: 26. Which of the following measures should be taken when an economy is going through in inflationary pressures?
1. The direct taxes should be increased.
2. The interest rate should be reduced.
3. The public spending should be increased.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 29. Which of the following occupations are included under secondary sector as per the national income accounts ?
1. Manufacturing
2. Construction
3. Gas and water supply
4. Mining and quarrying Select the correct answer using the codes given below 30. The sharp depreciation of rupee in the Forex market in the year 2011 was due to
1. flight to safety by foreign investors.
2. meltdown in European markets.
3. inflation in emerging market economies:
4. lag effect of monetary policy tightening.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 33. In the parlance of financial investment, the term bear denotes 37. Which one among the following is a fixed cost to a manufacturing firm in the short run? 41. Which of the following factors was not a reason behind the occurrence of the Industrial Revolution in England first? 44. In a perfectly competitive economy production and consumption will both be Pareto optimal, if the economy operates at a point where 45. The average fixed cost curve will always be 48. Which of the following factors is/are responsible for recent rapid slow down of Indian economy despite recovering from the global financial crisis.
1. The boost to demand given by monetary and fiscal stimulus following the crisis was large.
2. Starting in 2011-12, corporate and infrastructure investment started slowing both as a result of investment bottlenecks as well as the tighter monetary policy.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 52. The production function of a firm will change whenever 56. Share of food in total consumption expenditure has been coming down as Per Capita Income grew over time in last sixty years because 59. ‘Inclusive growth’ is a phrase used in India’s
1. 9th Plan 2. 10th Plan
3. 11th Plan 4. 12th Plan Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 60. According to the Companies Act, 2013, ‘nominal capital’ implies 61. Corporation tax in India is levied on income of a company.
Which one of the following does not include Corporation tax? 63. Which of the following statements about India’s unorganised sector are true?
1. Labour is more in number than that in the organised sector.
2. Job security and work regulation are better in unorganised sector.
3. They are usually not organised into trade unions.
4. Workers are usually employed for a limited number of days.
Select the correct answer using the code given below 67. Consider the following statements relating to the Non-
Alignment Movement:
l. The Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) was created and founded during the collapse of the colonial system and the independence struggles of the peoples of Africa, Asia, Latin America and other regions of the world and at the height’ of the Cold War.
2. The First Summit of the Movement of Non-Aligned Countries was convened by the leaders of India, Indonesia, Egypt, Syria and Yugoslavia at Belgrade on September 1-6, 1961.
3. During the early days of the Movement, its actions were a key factor in the decolonization process, which led later to the attainment of freedom by many countries and to the founding of several new sovereign States.
4. The fundamental principle of the movement is to maintain equal distance from both the super powers by joining the military alliances of both the blocs.
Which of the statements given above are correct ? 71. The way total output changes due to change in all inputs in same proportion is known as law of 74. Which one among the following is not a source of tax revenue for the Central Government in India ? 75. Which of the following theories form the basis of international trade ?
1. Absolute cost difference
2. Comparative cost difference
3. Opportunity cost Select the correct answer using the code given below: 78. The value of all final goods and services produced by the normal residents of a country and their property, whether operating within the domestic territory of the country or outside in a year is termed as 81. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. The Marxist theory repudiates the idea of the atomised and alienated individual.
2. Marxism upholds the idea of the natural rights of men and individuals.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 82. Which of the following is not the recommendation of the Arvind Mayaram Committee on Rationalizing the FDI/FPI definition (June 2014) ? 86. Which one of the following is not correct in the context of industrial clusters development in India? 89. What is meant by ‘Public Good’? 90. What is meant by price discrimination? 93. Which of the following statements in the context of incomeenvironment relationship is /are correct?
(1) Pollution trends tend to follow an inverse-U shaped relationship across different stages of economic development.
(2) In the beginning stage, pollution increases due to urbanization and industrialization.
(3) In the later stage, pollution declines due to structural changes towards services sector.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 97. Which of the following factors led to a decline in inflation rate in India during 2014-2015?
1. Persistent decline in crude oil prices
2. Softness in global prices of tradables such as edible oils and coal
3. Tight monetary policy pursued by the Reserve Bank of India Select the correct answer using the code given below. 101. Which one of the following is not a thrust area in the railway budget 2015 – 16? 104. Which of the following with regard to the term ‘bank run’ is correct? 105. The headquarters of ‘Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific’ is located at 108. Which of the following is not a ‘Public Good’? 112. According to the Classical Theory of Employment, deviations from the state of full employment are 116. Who among the following is the Chairman of the Fourteenth Finance Commission? 119. Which of the following statements about Bitcoin is/are correct?
1. It is a decentralized virtual currency.
2. It is generated through complex computer software systems.
3. The Reserve Bank of India recognized it as a legal tender in January 2016.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 120. Which of the following statements about the Trans-Pacific/ Partnership (TPP) is / are correct?
1. The TPP was signed by 12 Pacific Rim nations in the year 2015.
2. The TPP is likely to be a game-changer in global trade as member countries account for about 40 percent of global GDP.
3. India is a founder member of TPP.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 121. The 76% growth rate registered by Indian economy during the year 2015-16 is based on 123. Which one of the following is not a component of Revenue Receipts of the Union Government? 127. The Twelfth Five-Year Plan focussed on inclusive growth.
Which of the following were considered as challenges for inclusiveness ?
1. Poverty 2. Group inequality
3. Regional imbalance 4. Unemployment Select the correct answer using the code given below. 131. The monetary policy in India uses which of the following tools?
1. Bank rate 2. Open market operations
3. Public debt 4. Public revenue Select the correct answer using the code given below. 134. Which one of the following statements about Exchange-
Traded Fund (ETF) is not correct? 135. Which one of the following is not an exclusive right of the concerned coastal nations over Exclusive Economic Zone
(EEZ)? 138. In India, the base year of the new GDP series has been shifted from 2004-05 to Chapter 5 Physics 21. The most familiar form of radiant energy in sunlight that causes tanning and sunburning of human skin, is called 22. Consider the following statements
1. Clear sky appears blue due to poor scattering of blue wavelength of visible light.
2. Red part of light shows more scattering than blue light in the atmosphere.
3. In the absence of atmosphere, there would be no scattering of light and sky will look black.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 25. Fat can be separated from milk in a cream separation because of 29. Which one of the following statement is true? 33. The pressure exerted on the ground by a man is greatest 36. In scuba-diving, while ascending towards the water surface, there is a danger of bursting the lungs. It is because of 37. Half portion of a rectangular piece of ice is wrapped with a white piece of cloth while the other half with a black one. In this context, which one among the following statements is correct? 40. The force acting on a particle executing simple harmonic motion is 41. The cat can survive fall from a height much more than human or any other animal. It is because the cat 44. Mr X was advised by an architect to make outer walls of his house with hollow bricks. The correct reason is that such walls 50. In SONAR, we use 51. A liquid is kept in a regular cylindrical vessel upto a certain height. If this vessel is replaced by another cylindrical vessel having half the area of cross-section of the bottom, the pressure on the bottom will 54. The focal length of convex lens is 58. After rising a short distance the smooth column of smoke from a cigarette breaks up into an irregular and random pattern. In a similar fashion, a stream of fluid flowing past an obstacle breaks up into eddies and vortices which give the flow irregular velocity components transverse to the flow direction. Other examples include the wakes left in water by moving ships the sound produced by whistling and by wind instruments. These examples are the results of 61. Statement I: Pulling a lawn roller is easier than pushing it.
Statement II: Pushing increases the apparent weight and hence the force of friction. 62. A rectifier is an electronic device used to convert 65. If two conducting spheres are separately charged and then brought in contact 66. Which type/types of pen uses/use capillary action in addition to gravity for flow of ink? 69. When deep sea fishes are brought to the surface of the sea, their bodies burst. This is because the blood in their bodies flows at very 72. The celsius temperature is a/an 76. Which one among the following colours has the highest wavelength? 79. When an incandescent electric bulb glows 80. You are asked to jog in a circular track of radius 35 m. Right one complete round on the circular track, your displacement and distance covered by you respectively 81. Dirty cloths containing grease and oil stains are cleaned by adding detergents to water. Stains are removed because detergent 83. A ray of white light strikes the surface of an object. If all the colours are reflected the surface would appear 87. Two layers of a cloth of equal thickness provide warmer covering than a single layer of cloth with double the thickness. Why? 91. Inactive Nitrogen and Argon gases are usually used in electric bulbs in order to 94. Statement I: When a gun is fired it recoils, i.e., it pushes back, with much less velocity than the velocity of the bullet.
Statement II: Velocity of the recoiling gun is less because the gun is much heavier than the bullet. 95. For a harmonic oscillator, the graph between momentum p and displacement q would come out as 101. A person standing 1 m in front of a plane mirror approaches the mirror by 40 cm. The new distance between the person and his image in the plane mirror is 105. A wire-bound standard resistor used manganin or constantan. It is because 108. Which one of the following statements is not correct? 109. Newton’s laws of motion do not hold good for objects 112. A body is falling freely under the action of gravity alone in vacuum. Which one of the following remains constant during the fall? 116. The outside rearview mirror of modern automobiles is marked with warning “objects in mirror are closer than they appear”.
Such mirrors are 120. The SI unit of mechanical power is: 121. The rate of change of momentum of a body equal of the resultant: 123. Liquids and gases never show 124. The energy of a photon, whose momentum is 10 MeV/ c, where c is the speed of light, is given by 127. The pressure exerted by a 760 mm column of mercury at 0°C is known as 131. When a piece of pure silicon is doped with aluminium, then 135. A copper wire of radius r and length l has a resistance of R.
A second copper wire with radius 2r and length l is taken and the two wires are joined in a parallel combination. The resultant resistance of the parallel combination of the two wires will be 138. Infrared, visible and ultraviolet radiations/light have different properties. Which one of the following statements related to these radiations/light is not correct? 139. A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror at an angle of 40° with respect to surface normal. When it gets reflected from the mirror, it undergoes a deviation of Chapter 6 Chemistry 21. What is the Jeweller’s rouge? 22. Which one of the following is used in the preparation of antiseptic solution? 23. Which of the following has maximum density? 26. Which one of the following is correct? Butter is 30. Statement I: Addition of water to an aqueous solution of HC1 decreases the pH. Statement II: Addition of water suppresses the ionisation of HC1. 34. Aqua-regia used by alchemists to separate silver and gold is a mixture of 37. The light emitted by firefly is due to 38. Which of the following statements about the commonly used automobile battery are true?
I. It is usually a lead-acid battery.
II. It has six cells with a potential of 2 V each.
III. Its cells work as galvanic cells while discharging power.
IV. Its cells work as electrolytic cells while recharging.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 41. Which one of the following is associated with the formation of brown air in traffic congested cities? 45. The coil in a heater is made of 49. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists. List I List II
(Alloy) (Constituent)
A. Solder 1 Iron and carbon
B. Brass 2 Copper and zinc
C. Bronze 3 Copper and tin
D. Steel 4 Lead and tin Codes A B C D A B C D 52. A woman desires to clean the surface of her gold ornaments by a chemical approach. For this she requires to use 53. Which one among the following has been producing/can produce light by a chemical change? 56. Which one of the following is not a mixture? 59. Statement I: Superphosphate of lime can be assimilated by plants. Statement II: Superphosphate of lime is soluble in water. 61. Which one among the following is a sin smelling agent added to LPG cylinder to help the detection of gas leakage? 62. Heavy water implies 65. Which one among the following substances evolves heat when dissolved in water? 66. A close bottle containing water at room temperature was taken to the Moon and then the lid is opened. The water will 69. Which one among the following metals is used for making boats because it does not corrode by sea water? 73. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
Lis t I Lis t II
(Acid) (Source)
A. Lactic acid 1 Tamarind
B. Tartaric acid 2 Orange
C. Oxalic acid 3 Tomato
D. Citric acid 4 Sour curd Codes A B C D A B C D 77. Statement I: All liquids are conductors of electricity.
Statement II: Under the condition of low pressure and high voltage, liquids can be made conducting. 80. Vermicompost is an/a 81. Which one among the following nontoxic gases helps in formation of enzymes which ripen fruit? 84. From which one among the following water sources, the water is likely to be contaminated with fluoride? 91. Soaps cannot be used in acidic condition because they lose their cleansing effect due to formation of insoluble 94. Match the following lists. List I List II
(Agent) (Disease)
A. Arsenic 1 Fluorosis
B. Fluoride 2 Melanosis
C. Dust 3 Presbycusis
D. Noise 4 Sillicosis Codes A B C D A B C D 95. Iodised salt is a 98. The gas which turns lime water milky is 101. Which of the following gases in the atmosphere is/are responsible for acid rains?
1. Oxides of sulphur 2. Oxides of nitrogen
3. Oxides of carbon Select the correct answer using the codes given below 107. What type of mixture is smoke? 108. A compound that is a white solid which absorbs water vapour from the air is 111. Consider the following statements. Statement I: Clay layers are poor aquifers.
Statement II: The inter-particle space of clay minerals is the least.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 114. Iron sheet kept in moist air covered with rust. Rust is 118. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Amnion contains fluid.
2. Ultrasound scan can detect the sex of an embryo.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 120. In Tritium (T), the number of protons (P) and neutrons (N) respectively are 121. Which of the following is a good lubricant ? 123. Bagasse, a by-product of sugar manufacturing industry, is used for the production of 127. Which one among the following is an example of chemical change ? 131. A metallic plate sticks firmly on the mouth of a water vessel made from another metal. By way of heating, one can detach the plate from the vessel. This is because heat expands 134. Red phosphorus is used in the manufacture of safety matches. This is due to the fact that 135. Which one among the following processes is not part of a chemical weathering ? 138. Which one among the following is a micronutrient present in soil for various crops ? 141. Which one of the following statement is not correct? 142. Which of the following is not gaseous air pollutant? 146. A piece of ice, 100 g in mass is kept at 0°C. The amount of heat is requires to melt at 0°C is (take latent heat of melting of ice to be 333.6 j / g): 149. Two systems are said to be in thermal equilibrium if and only if: 150. Methyl lsocyanate gas, which was involved in the disaster in Bhopal in December 1984, was used in the Union Carbide factory for production of: 153. Which one of the following statements is not correct ? 157. Which one of the following is not an allotrope of carbon? 161. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I List-II
(Element) (Property/ Use}
A. Mg 1. Gives red colour to flame
B. Ca 2. Sulphate compound used in medicine to examine the alimentary canal of a patient
C. Sr 3. Traps the energy of sunlight in photosynthesis
D. Ba 4. Control of muscle contraction Code: 164. ‘Plum Pudding Model’ for an atom was proposed by 165. There are two elements-calcium (atomic number 20) and argon (atomic number 18). The mass number of both the elements is 40. They are therefore known as 168. Which one of the following is a physical change? 172. What is the maximum number of states of matter? 176. How many hydrogen atoms are contained in 1.50 g of glucose (C6H12O6)? 178. Which one of the following gases dissolves in water to give acidic solution? Chapter 7 Biology 21. Which one of the following is not an insect borne disease? 22. Which of the following nutrients is not a structural component of the plant? 23. Dim-vision in the evening and night results from the deficiency of which one of the following? 26. Cloves, used as a spice, are derived from which of the following plant parts? 30. Which one of the following is correct? A concrete wall generally? 34. In normal adult human, what is the rate of heart beat per minute? 37. Which one of the following is responsible for converting milk into curd? 38. Which one of the following is a major constituent of biogas? 41. Which of the following is a rich source of energy? 45. Malaria in the human body is caused by which one of the following organisms? 49. Match the following Lis t I Lis t II
(Medicinal Product) (Source)
A. Quinine 1. Poppy plant
B. M orphine 2. Bacterium
C. Penicillin 3. Cinchona bark
D. Tetracycline 4. Fungus Codes A B C D 52. Which one of the following is an example of vestigial organ in man? 53. Which one of the following is a freeliving bacterium that helps in nitrogen fixation in soil? 56. The branches of this tree root themselves like new trees over a large area. The roots then give rise to more trunks and branches. Because of this characteristic and its longevity, this tree is considered immortal and is an integral part of the myths and legends of India. Which tree is this? 59. Which one of the following is present in chlorophyll which gives a green colour to plant leaves? 61. Which one of the following is considered normal blood pressure in man? 63. Primary source of vitamin-D for human beings is 66. Quinine is a drug used in the treatment of malaria. From which part of the plant it is obtained? 67. Which one of the following is not a feature of eutrophic lakes? 70. Anthrax is a disease of human and cattle with a potential for biological warfare. It is caused by 74. Match the following List I List II
(Mineral) (Major Source)
A. Iron 1. Banana, date
B. Potassium 2. Palak
C. Iodine 3. Iodized common salt
D. Calcium 4. Milk, egg Codes A B C D 78. A milkman puts banana leaf in milk jar, because banana leaf 81. Which one among the following plants cannot be multiplied by cuttings? 82. The vitamin(s), which is/are generally excreted in urine, is/ are 85. If excess fertilizer is applied to a plant without water, the plant will 89. Consider the following statements
1. Iodine is necessary for the thyroid gland to make adrenaline.
2. Iodine deficiency leads to goitre in human beings.
3. Iodine is secreted by pancreas and helps in regulating cholesterol level.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 93. Consider the following statements
1. Warm-blooded animals can remain active in cold environment in which cold-blooded animals can hardly move.
2. Cold-blooded animals require much less energy to survive than warm-blooded animals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 96. Cattle are capable of digesting cellulose present in the grass and/or fodder that they eat. This ability is attributed to the 97. Why are pregnant women recommended substantial intake of green leafy vegetables in their diet, especially in the 1st trimester? 100. Human body’s main organ of balance is located in 101. Dead organs are generally stored in formalin.
Formalin is beacuse it acts as a disinfectant which is due to the presence of formaldehyde 104. Which among the following is the correct increasing order of pH found in human body? 108. Which of the following diseases are transmitted from one person to another?
1. AIDS 2. Cirrhosis
3. Hepatitis B 4. Syphilis Select the correct answer using the code given below 111. Which one among the following is not correct about Down’s syndrome? 112. Which one among the following elements/ions is essential in small quantities for the development of healthy teeth but causes mottling of the teeth if consumed in higher quantities? 115. Bats can fly in dark because they 119. Which one among the following group of items contain only biodegradable items? 121. Cutting and peeling of onions brings tears to the eyes because of the presence of 123. Endosulfan, which has been in news these days, is 126. Which one among the following statements is correct? 127. The ultimate cause of water movement in a plant stem against gravity is 130. If we sprinkle common salt on an Earthworm, it dies due to 134. Which one among the following vitamins is necessary for blood clotting? 138. What would happen if human blood becomes acidic (low pH)? 141. A person feeds on rice and vegetable made up of potato only. He is likely to suffer from deficiency of 142. Vaseline was applied to both surfaces of the leaves of a plant. Which of the following process/ processes would be affected?
1. Photosynthesis 2. Respiration
3. Transpiration Select the correct answer using the codes given below 145. In humans, which one among the following with reference to breathing is correct? 149. Which organelle in the cell, other than nucleus, contains DNA? 153. Deficiency of which of the following elements is responsible for weakening of bones?
1. Calcium 2. Phosphorus
3. Nitrogen 4. Carbon Select the correct answer using the codes given below 156. Which one among the following is the generic name of the causal organism of Elephantiasis ? 157. Which of the following does not possess a specialised conducting tissue for transport of water and other substances in plants? 160. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding fats?
1. Fats are needed for the formation of cell membrane.
2. Fats help the body to absorb calcium from food.
3. Fats are required to repair damaged tissue.
4. Body cannot release energy in fats as quickly as the energy in carbohydrates.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 161. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. Coronary artery supplies blood to heart muscles.
2. Pulmonary vein supplies blood to lungs.
3. Hepatic artery supplies blood to kidneys.
4. Renal vein supplies blood to kidneys.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 164. Which of the statements given below are correct?
1. A person having blood group ‘A’ can donate blood to persons having blood group ‘A’ and blood group ‘AB’.
2. A person having blood group ‘AB’ can donate blood to persons having blood groups ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘AB’ or ‘O’.
3. A person with blood group ‘O’ can donate blood to persons having any blood group.
4. A person with blood group ‘O’ can receive blood from the person of any of the blood groups.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 168. Which one among the following pairs is not correctly matched ? 171. Genetic screening is 172. Which one among the following structures or cells is not present in connective tissues ? 175. Which one among the following statements is not true for Mammals ? 179. Which of the following cause(s) variation in the genetic material of progeny?
1. Sexual reproduction 2. Asexual reproduction
3. Mutations 4. Epigenetic changes Select the correct answer using the code given below. 181. Plants contain a variety of sterols like stigmasterol, ergosterol, sitosterol etc. which very closely resemble cholesterol. These plant sterols are referred as: 183. Penicillin inhibits synthesis of bacterial 186. Glucose is a source of energy. Which one of the following types of molecule is glucose ? 187. Vitamin B12 deficiency causes pernicious anemia, Animals cannot synthesize vitamin B12. Humans must obtain all their vitamin B12 from their diet. The complexing metal ion in vitamin B12 is: 190. In artificial insemination (AI) process. Which of the following is/are introduced into the uterus of the female ? 194. Which one of the following hormones contains peptide chain ? 198. The HIV virus weakens the immunity of a person because it destroys 201. Which of the following cells do not contain nucleus?
1. Root hair cells 2. Red blood cells
3. Platelets 4. Monocytes Select the correct answer using the code given below. 204. Deficiency of fluoride leads to which one of the following health problems? 208. The elemental composition of an adult human body by mass is 209. ‘Altitude sickness’ is caused at high altitude due to 212. Bleeding of gums, falling of teeth, fragile bones and delayed wound healing occur due to the deficiency of which one of the following vitamins? 215. A biological community in its environment such as a pond, an ocean, a forest, even an aquarium is known as 216. Human insulin molecule is composed of one a-chain having 21 amino acids and one b-chain having 30 amino acids.
How many functional insulin genes occur in adult humans? 219. Which one of the following proteins gives lustrous shiny appearance to silk fibre? Chapter 8 General Knowledge 21. Which one among the following States has the highest gender disparity? 24. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development is also known as 28. Consider the following statements about Tata Steel
1. It is Asia’s first privately owned integrated iron and steel plant.
2. It is the first company outside Japan to get the Deming Application Prize in 2008, for excellence in total quality management.
3. Immediately after the enactment of Provident Fund Law in India, Tata Steel introduced provident fund for its employees.
4. It is the first company in the world to get Social Accountability 8000 certification from Social Accountability International, USA.
Which of the statements given above are correct? 32. Which one among the following statements about South Asia is not correct? 35. Consider the following statements
1. Rural forestry aims to raise the trees on community land and on privately owned land.
2. Farm forestry encourages individual farmers to plant trees on their own farmland to meet the domestic need of the family.
Which of the statement (s) given above is/are correct? 36. Recently, Apple Computers of USA has launched a touch pad which allows a user to operate desktop computer with finger gestures, eliminating the need for a mouse. What is the name of the device? 39. Which one among the following is not a clause of World Trade Organisation? 41. Statement-I: The economy of India in the 19th century came to a state of ruin under English East India Company.
Statement-II: English East India Company’s acquisition of Diwani right led to the miseries of the peasants and those associated with the traditional handicrafts industry of India.
Codes: 43. Which one among the following programmes has now been restructured as the National Rural Livelihood Mission? 47. Which of the following is/are the objective (s) of ‘Mahatma Gandhi Pravasi Suraksha Yojana’?
To encourage and enable the overseas Indian workers by giving government contribution to
1. save for their return and resettlement.
2. save for their old age.
3. obtain a life insurance cover against natural death for the entire life of the worker.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 50. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I List II
(Training institute) (Location)
A. National Academy 1. Hyderabad of Direct Taxes
B. Rafi Ahmed Kidwai – 2. Nagpur National Postal Academy
C. Sardar Vallabhbhai 3. Dehradun Patel National Police Academy
D. Indira Gandhi 4. Ghaziabad National Forest Academy Code:
A B C D 51. Consider the following statements on Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multisectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC):
1. BIMSTEC has seven members – Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka and Thailand.
2. BIMSTEC provides a link between South Asia and South East Asia by way of economic cooperation and linkages in identified areas of cooperation.
3. BIMSTEC was rechristened as BISTEC in the year 2014.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 54. Consider the following statements about FIFA:
1. It is an association governed by Swiss law, founded in 1904 and based in Zurich.
2. FEFA has been engaging with its stakeholders and other institutions to find sensible ways of addressing environmental issues and mitigate the negative environmental impacts linked to its activities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 58. V M Dandekar and Neel Kanth Rath were well-known for their 61. Arihant is a 62. Andaman and Nicobar Command is 65. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I (Industry) List II (Location)
A. Railway equipment 1. Kochi
B. Automobile 2. Ludhiana
C. Ship-building 3. Bhilai
D. Bicycle 4. Jabalpur Code: 66. Barji oil refinery is located at 69. Master Chief Petty Officer is a rank in the 73. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I (Sanctuary) List II (State)
A. Sharavati Valley 1. Gujarat
B. Satkosia Gorge 2. Goa
C. Pirotan Island 3. Odisha
D. Bhagwan Mahavir 4. Karnataka Code: 77. ‘And Then One Day: A Memoir’ is an autobiography of 80. Indian Coast Guard is 81. Which of the following statement(s) with regard to the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958 is/are correct ?
1. The Act is applicable only to the States of Manipur, Tripura and Nagaland.
2. A person taken into custody under the above Act must be handed over to the officer-in-charge of the nearest police station with least possible delay.
3. An area can be declared as a disturbed area under the above Act only when the State Government is of the opinion that the use of the armed forces in aid of civil power is necessary to contain a dangerous condition in the concerned area.
Select the correct answer by using the code given below: 84. Which one of the following statements is not correct ? 88. Information under the RTI Act, 2005 can be provided in respect of 92. Which of the following is not a laid down principle of the Panchsheel ? 95. The ‘Panchsheel Agreement’ for peaceful coexistence was signed between 96. Which of the following are members of BRICS? 99. The Supreme Court guidelines issued in the Vishaka Case pertain to 101. The electronic voting machines are developed jointly with
1. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
2. Bharat Electronics Limited
3. Electronics Corporation of India Limited
4. Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited Select the correct answer using the code given below. 103. Which one of the following is not a member of MERCOSUR
(Southern Common Market)? 107. Which of the following statements with regard to New Development Bank BRICS, formerly referred to as the BRICS Development Bank, is/are correct?
1. The Headquarters of the Bank is situated at Moscow, Russia.
2. K.V. Kamath is the first President of the Bank.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 110. Where was the 14th Asia Security Summit (Shangri-La Dialogue) held in May 2015? 111. ‘Arihant’ is the name of 114. Which one of the following is not provided regular budgetary support by the Ministry of Defence? 118. ‘Red Flag’ is the name of a joint exercise between India and which one of the following countries? 121. After hot sunny day, people sprinkle water on the roof-top because: 122. The rank of Major General in India Army is equivalent to: 125. Which one of the following statements concerning research centres in India is not correct? 126. Which one of the following is correct? 129. The first summit of the Forum for India-Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC) was held in: 133. Which of the following Gods are also known as Lokapalas or the Guardians of the Universe? 137. Consider the following statement: “If you feel you are trapped in a black hole, don’t give up.
There is a way act” Who among the following made the above statement? 140. Which one of the following is not correct in respect of Andaman and Nicobar Command?
(d) It is the first integrated theatre command in India.
(b) Its headquarters is at Port Blair.
(c) It is commanded by a three-star oficer.
(d) It was set up by the British during the Second World War.
Ans: (d)
CDS Exam (I) 2015 141. The first Tejas squadron of Indian Air Force consists of 144. Who among the following was defeated by Chile to won the Copa America Football Championship, 2016? 148. Jammu and Kashmir Rifles is 152. AIDS is caused by the Human Immuno-deficiency Virus
(HIV). The transmission of HIV infection generally occurs through 155. Which one of the following statements is not correct? 156. ‘Rand/ZAR’ is the currency of 159. With regard to ‘Project Tiger’, which one of the following statements is not correct? 161. India signed an agreement in 2016 to develop a strategic port in one of its neighbouring countries. What is the name of the port? 163. How many medals were won by India in 2016 Summer Olympics? 167. Consider the following statement about a famous football player: “He was diagnosed with a growth hormone deficiency during his childhood but went on to win three European Golden Shoes in his career.” Who is that player? 170. Which country signed a Memorandum of Understanding with India for promoting the production of Pigeon peas/Tur and other pulses in July 2016? 171. BRICS Summit, 2016 was held in 174. Which one of the following is a Peacetime Gallantry Award? 178. Amartya Sen was awarded the Nobel Prize for his contribution to 181. The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), which were adopted by the UNO in place of the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs), 2015, aim to achieve the 17 goals by the year 182. Who among the following is the recipient of the Jnanpith Award, 2016? 185. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I List-II
(Concern) (Product)
A. TISCO 1. Chemicals
B. BALCO 2. Iron & Steel
C. BPCL 3. Electronics
D. BEL 4. Aluminium Code:
A B C D 186. Which one of the following planets was explored by Cassini Mission launched by NASA, which ended in September 2017? 189. Who among the following is the recipient of the Dadasaheb Phalke Award, 2016? 193. One carbon credit is accepted as equivalent to 197. Where is world’s first Partition Museum inaugurated recently? 200. Which one of the following is not included in the National Air Quality Index? 201. Which one of the following is not a feature of the Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY)? 204. UBI, as an alternative for subsidies in poverty alleviation, stands for 208. Which of the following statements about the National Water Academy (NWA) is/are correct?
1. The primary objective of the NWA is to function as Centre of Excellence in training for in-service engineers from Central and State organizations on various aspects of water resource planning.
2. The NWA is located in New Delhi.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 212. Which one of the following statements with regard to Antrix Corporation Limited is correct? 215. Which of the following about the role of Indian Coast Guard is/are correct?
1. Indian Coast Guard has been entrusted with the offshore security coordination authority
2. Lead intelligence agency for coastal and sea border
3. Coastal security in territorial waters Select the correct answer using the code given below. 216. Which one of the following statements is not correct? 219. The Ministry of Communication has recently launched a Pan India scholarship programme for school–children called ‘Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojana’. The objective of the scheme is to increase the reach of 221. In November 2017, India’s MC Mary Kom won the gold medal at the Asian Boxing Championship, 2017 held at Ho Chi Minh City in Vietnam. In which one of the following categories was she declared winner? 223. The Ministry of Power, Government of India has recently constituted a Committee to investigate the causes of the accident that occured on 1st November, 2017 at Feroze Gandhi Thermal Power Plant Ltd., Unchahar, in Uttar Pradesh.
Who among the following is the Chairman of the Committee? 227. Which one of the following became a part of China in 1997 following the principle of ‘one country, two systems’? 230. Where is Hambantota Port located? 231. Which one of the following statements about the Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDUGKY) is not correct? 234. Which of the following statements about the olive ridley turtles is/are correct?
1. They are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world.
2. They live in warm waters of Pacific, Atlantic and Indian Oceans.
3. The Coromandel Coast in India is the largest mass nesting site for the olive ridley turtles.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 237. The judgement of the Supreme Court of India in the Vishakha Case pertains to 238. ‘SAMPRITI-2017’ is a joint military exercise between armed forces of India and (a)Both the Statements are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement IAns: (a)
CDS (I) 2011
102. Statement I By virtue of a law passed by the Parliament of India in the year 2003, the people of Indian origin residing in 16 countries enjoy dual citizenship status.
(a)Both the Statements are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement IAns: (c)
(a)Both the Statements are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement IAns: (b)
CDS (I) 2017
104. Which one among the following statements regarding the constitutionally guaranteed Right to Education in India is correct?
(a)This right covers both child and adult illiteracy and therefore, universally guarantees education to all citizens of IndiaAns: (d)
CDS (II) 2015
105. The Chief Election Commissioner of India holds office for a period of
(a)six yearsAns: (c)
CDS (I) 2019
106. There are different arguments given in favour of power sharing in a democratic political system. Which one of the following is not one of them?
(a)It reduces conflict among different communitiesAns: (b)
(a)1,2 and 3Ans: (c)
CDS (I) 2007
108. Which of the following statements with respect to the judiciary in India is/are correct?
(a)Only 1Ans: (d)
CDS (II) 2009
109. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India need the ratification by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the states to effect amendment?
(a)1, 2, 3 and 4Ans: (a)
(a)1 and 2Ans: (c)
(a)Keshavananda Bharati caseAns: (c)
CDS (I) 2008
112. With reference to the conduct of government business in the Parliament of India, the term ‘closure’ refers to
(a)suspension of debate at the terminafan of a day’s sitting of the ParliamentAns: (a)
CDS (II) 2010
113. According to the Administrative Tribunal Act, 1985. the Central Administrative Tribunal adjudicates disputes and complaints with respect to the service of persons who are
(a)appointed to pubic services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union except members of the Defence servicesAns: (a)
(a)1 and 2Ans: (d)
CDS (II) 2011
115. Which of the following condition/conditions must be fulfilled by the NRIs to be eligible to vote in elections in India?
(a)1, 2 and 3Ans: (a)
CDS (I) 2013
116. The Kamraj Plan was a plan formulated in 1963 by then
(a)Union Cabinet Minister, whereby a new Constitution for the Indian National Congress was proposedAns: (b)
CDS (II) 2017
117. The Constitution of India divided the states of India in categories A, B, C and D in the year 1950.
(a)The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category B states. The Governor was the executive head of categories C and D statesAns: (c)
(a)Freedom to move freely throughout the countryAns: (c)
CDS (II) 2019
119. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a)Only 1Ans: (d)
CDS (I) 2012
120. With regard to the powers of the Rajya Sabha, which one among the following statements is not correct?
(a)A money bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya SabhaAns: (c)
CDS (II) 2007
