GK in English

GK Chapterwise – CDS Previous Year Papers

Table of Contents

101. Statement I ‘ The Fundamental Rights protect the rights and liberties of the people against encroachment by the legislative and executive wings of the government.
Statement II The Fundamental Rights guarantee the rights of the citizens.

(a)Both the Statements are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both the Statements are true, but Statement II is not the correct explaination of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false, but Statement li is true
Ans: (a)

CDS (I) 2011

102. Statement I By virtue of a law passed by the Parliament of India in the year 2003, the people of Indian origin residing in 16 countries enjoy dual citizenship status.
Statement II This law enables them to participate in economic activities, cast their vote or get elected to various legislative bodies in India.

(a)Both the Statements are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both the Statements are true, but Statement II is not the correct explaination of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false, but Statement li is true
Ans: (c)
CDS Exam (I) 2013

103. Statement I Adjournment is a short recess within the session of the Parliament ordered by the Presiding Officer of the House.
Statement II When the Presiding Officer adjourns the House without fixing any date or time of the next meeting of the House, it is known as adjournment sine die.

(a)Both the Statements are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both the Statements are true, but Statement II is not the correct explaination of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false, but Statement li is true
Ans: (b)

CDS (I) 2017

104. Which one among the following statements regarding the constitutionally guaranteed Right to Education in India is correct?

(a)This right covers both child and adult illiteracy and therefore, universally guarantees education to all citizens of India
(b) This right is a child right covering the age group of 6 to 14 years and becomes operational from the year 2015
(c) This right has been taken from the British Constitution which was the first Welfare State in the world
(d) This right has been given to all Indian children between the ages of 6 to 14 years under the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act
Ans: (d)

CDS (II) 2015

105. The Chief Election Commissioner of India holds office for a period of

(a)six years
(b) during the pleasure of the President
(c) for 6 years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier
(d) for 5 years or till the age of 60 years, whichever is earlier
Ans: (c)

CDS (I) 2019

106. There are different arguments given in favour of power sharing in a democratic political system. Which one of the following is not one of them?

(a)It reduces conflict among different communities
(b) Majority community does not impose its will on others
(c) Since, all are affected by the policies of the government, they should be consulted in the governance of the country
(d) It speeds up the decision-making process and improves the chances of unity of the country
Ans: (b)
CDS Exam (I) 2012

107. Consider the following statements about the powers of the President of India
1. The President can direct that any matter on which decision has been taken by a Minister should be placed before the Council of Ministers.
2. The President can call all information relating to proposals for legislation.
3. The President has the right to address and send messages to either House of the Parliament.
4. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the Union must be communicated to the President.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1,2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1,2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)

CDS (I) 2007

108. Which of the following statements with respect to the judiciary in India is/are correct?
1. Unlike in the United States, India has not provided for a double system of courts.
2. Under the Constitution of India, there is a single integrated system of courts for the Union as well as the states.
3. The organisation of the subordinate judiciary varies slightly from state to state.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a)Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of these
Ans: (d)

CDS (II) 2009

109. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India need the ratification by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the states to effect amendment?
1. The manner of election of the President of India.
2. Extent of the executive power of the Union and the states.
3. Powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts.
4. Any of the Lists in the 7th Schedule.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a)1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
Ans: (a)
CDS Exam (II) 2018

110. Which of the following are envisaged as being part of the ‘Right against Exploitation’ in the Constitution of India?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.
2. Abolition of untouchability.
3. Protection of the interests of the minorities.
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a)1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
CDS Exam (I) 2016

111. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court of India gave verdicts which have a direct bearing on the Centre-State relations?

(a)Keshavananda Bharati case
(b) Vishakha case
(c) S R Bommai case
(d) Indira Sawhney case
Ans: (c)

CDS (I) 2008

112. With reference to the conduct of government business in the Parliament of India, the term ‘closure’ refers to

(a)suspension of debate at the terminafan of a day’s sitting of the Parliament
(b) a rule of legislative procedure under which further debate on a motion can be hatted
(c) the termination of a Parliamentary session
(d) refusal on the part of tie Government to have the opposition look at important documents
Ans: (a)

CDS (II) 2010

113. According to the Administrative Tribunal Act, 1985. the Central Administrative Tribunal adjudicates disputes and complaints with respect to the service of persons who are

(a)appointed to pubic services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union except members of the Defence services
(b) official and servants of the Supreme Court or any High Courts
(c) members of the Secretarial staff of the Parliament or any state legislatures
(d) members of the Defence services
Ans: (a)
CDS Exam (II) 2015

114. Which of the following Committees are the Committees of Parliament?
1. Public Accounts Committee
2. Estimates Committee
3. Committee on Public Undertakings Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a)1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)

CDS (II) 2011

115. Which of the following condition/conditions must be fulfilled by the NRIs to be eligible to vote in elections in India?
1. They must be physically present in their place of origin to exercise their franchise.
2. NRIs whether they have acquired citizenship of other countries or not are eligible to vote.
3. Eligible NRIs have to register by filling up form 6-A with electoral registration office.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a)1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) Only 2
(d) Only 3
Ans: (a)

CDS (I) 2013

116. The Kamraj Plan was a plan formulated in 1963 by then

(a)Union Cabinet Minister, whereby a new Constitution for the Indian National Congress was proposed
(b) Chief Minister of Madras, whereby the senior ministers were asked to leave government and work to rejuvenate the party
(c) Chief Minister of Madras, whereby a new set of principles for accepting donations for the party work was proposed
(d) Chief Minister of Madras to root out corruption from India
Ans: (b)

CDS (II) 2017

117. The Constitution of India divided the states of India in categories A, B, C and D in the year 1950.
In this context which of the following statements is correct ?

(a)The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category B states. The Governor was the executive head of categories C and D states
(b) The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category A states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of categories B and C states. The Governor was the executive head of the category D states
(c) The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category B states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of categories C and D states
(d) The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category B states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of categories C and D states
Ans: (c)
CDS Exam (II) 2015

118. Which one among the following is not guaranteed by the Constitution of India?

(a)Freedom to move freely throughout the country
(b) Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
(c) Freedom to own, acquire and dispose property anywhere in the country
(d) Freedom to practice any trade or profession
Ans: (c)

CDS (II) 2019

119. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Under the provisions of Article 200 of the Constitution of India the Governor of a state may
1. Withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the state legislature.
2. Reserve the Bill passed by the state legislature for consideration of the President.
3. Return the Bill, other than a money Bill, for reconsideration of the legislature.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a)Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)

CDS (I) 2012

120. With regard to the powers of the Rajya Sabha, which one among the following statements is not correct?

(a)A money bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha
(b) The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or amend a money bill
(c) The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement
(d) The Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the Demands for Grants
Ans: (c)

CDS (II) 2007

DsGuruJi HomepageClick Here